Results

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has unveiled a scheme of offline retail payments using cards and mobile devices to foster financial inclusion. Lack of Internet connectivity or low speed of Internet, especially in remote areas, is a major impediment in the adoption of digital payments. Against this backdrop, providing an option of offline payments through cards, wallets and mobile devices is expected to further adoption of digital payments.

Statement 1 is incorrect: According to Rule 63 of the Conduct of Election Rules, a candidate or his agent is explicitly allowed to demand a recount of postal ballots or EVM votes before the result is formally declared. 
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Returning Officer considers the grounds provided and may allow the recount in part or whole. The Returning Officer has to record her reason for both permission and rejection.
Statement 3 is incorrect: In P K K Shamsudeen v. K A M Mappillai Mohindeen, (1989) case the apex court held that, the recount of votes cannot be ordered as a matter of course or on mere asking. A solid cause has to be made out by the person seeking a recount of votes. The application for a partial or complete recount has to be made in writing along with strong reasons for the demand.

Statement 1 is incorrect: The territorial sea extends seaward up to 12 nautical miles (nm) from the baselines of the coastal state. The coastal states have sovereignty and jurisdiction over the territorial sea. These rights extend not only on the surface but also to the seabed, subsoil, and even airspace. Beyond the 12-nautical-mile (22 km) limit, there is a further 12 nautical miles (22 km) from the territorial sea baseline limit which is called the contiguous zone. The coastal state can impose laws to regulate four specific areas (customs, taxation, immigration, and pollution)
It established International Seabed Authority to regulate exploitation of deep seabed minerals. 
Statement 2 is incorrect: The exclusive economic zone extends 200 nautical mile seawards from the baseline. Within this area, the coastal nation has sole exploitation rights over all natural resources. However, the coastal state does not have full sovereign right over the area. A coastal state only has sole exploitation rights over the natural resources found in this zone. Foreign nations have the right to freedom of navigation and overflight.
Statement 3 is correct: The Convention has created three new institutions: 
The International Tribunal for the Law of the Sea, the Commission on the Limits of the Continental Shelf and the International Seabed Authority. 

Statement 1 is correct. Farm Mechanization refers to usage of machinery to helps increase productivity & production of output, undertake timely farm operations and enable the farmers to quickly rotate crops on the same farm land. Studies have shown a direct relationship between farm mechanization (farm power availability) and farm yield. Farm mechanization is said to provide a number of input savings: 
Seeds (approximately 15-20 percent) 
Fertilizers (approximately 15-20 percent)
Increased cropping intensity (approximately 5-20 percent). 
Statement 2 is correct. There are various social benefits of farm mechanization. It helps in conversion of uncultivable land to agricultural land through advanced tilling techniques and also in shifting land used for feed and fodder cultivation by draught animals towards food production.

Seismic discontinuities are the regions in the earth where seismic waves behave a lot different compared to the surrounding regions due to a marked change in physical or chemical properties. 
Option a is correct- Mohorovicic discontinuity forms the boundary between the crust and the upper mantle (asthenosphere). It occurs at an average depth of about 8 kilometers beneath the ocean basins and 30 kilometers beneath continental surfaces. The cause of this discontinuity is thought to be a change in rock composition from rocks containing feldspar (above) to rocks that contain no feldspars (below). 
Option b is incorrect – Gutenberg discontinuity lies between mantle and the outer core. 
Option c is incorrect – Lehmann discontinuity lies between outer and inner core. 
Option d is incorrect – Conrad discontinuity is the transition zone between the upper and the lower part of the lithosphere. It is observed in various continental regions at a depth of 15 to 20 km; however, it is not found in oceanic regions.

The Patkai Bum, Naga Hills, Manipur Hills, Lushai Hills are part of the Himalayan Mountain system having their general alignment from the north to the south direction. Their elevation decreases from North to South. Patkai Bum forms the border between Arunachal Pradesh and Myanmar. (Thus, northernmost among the hills in the option) Naga Hills form watershed between India and Myanmar. Mt. Sharamati is the highest peak of these hills. (Thus, just after Patkai Bum) Manipur Hills form border between Manipur and Myanmar (After the Naga Hills) Mizo Hills (Lushai Hills) has Blue Mountain as the Highest peak. (Southernmost among the hills in the option)

Statement 1 is correct. The permanent Lok Adalat hears disputes regarding public utility service, while the Lok adalat can hear all civil and compoundable criminal cases. 
Statement 2 is incorrect. The final decision of both the permanent lok adalat and lok adalat is final and binding on parties. 
Statement 3 is correct. The pecuniary jurisdiction of permanent Lok adalat is less than 1 crore rupees, while there is no such limit on pecuniary jurisdiction of the Lok adalat.
Statement 4 is incorrect. Permanent Lok Adalat have jurisdiction.

Fiscal deficit target at 6.8% Fiscal deficit is the difference between the government’s total expenditure and its total receipts excluding borrowing. It can be reduced by increasing revenue and decreasing expenditure. 
Option a is correct: Introduction of MGNREGA like scheme to urban areas increases expenditure, thus, it will increase deficit. Option b is incorrect: Rationalizing subsidies using Direct Benefit transfer (DBT) reduces expenditure. DBT also eliminates ghost beneficiaries. Thus, fiscal deficit will decrease. 
Option c is incorrect: Excise duty on petrol is an important source of revenue for the government. Increase in excise duty will increase revenue and therefore, it will reduce fiscal deficit. 
Option d is incorrect: The General Anti-Avoidance Rule (GAAR) is an anti-tax avoidance law in India to curb tax evasion and avoid tax leaks. It can reduce the fiscal deficit.

Eravikulam National Park is a national park located along the Western Ghats in Kerala.
Statement a is correct. The highest density and largest surviving population of Nilgiri tahr are found in Eravikulam national park.
Statement b is correct. The Park is of undulating terrain and the highest peak of western ghats Anamudi (2695 m) is found here. 
Statement c is incorrect. River Kaveri does not pass through this park. Many tributaries of Periyar and Kaveri River passes through this park. The Kaveri flows through the states of Karnataka and Tamil Nadu. 
Statement d is correct. Three major types of plant communities found in this park are: Grasslands, Shrub Land and Shola Forests. The high plateau and the hills rising above it are primarily covered by Grasslands. Shrub Lands are seen along the base of the cliffs. Shola Forests are located in the valleys and folds.

Statement 1 is correct. SERB has developed a newly approved scheme that seeks to explore new scientific breakthroughs, with long-term impact on our fundamental scientific understanding, and offer disruptive technologies at the cutting edge. SERB-SUPRA (Scientific and Useful Profound Research Advancement) is a scheme beyond normal core grants and purposefully designed for high quality proposals consisting of new hypothesis or challenge existing ones, and provide 'out-of-box' solutions. 
Statement 2 is incorrect. It is run by Science and Engineering Research Board. 
Statement 3 is incorrect. Applicants [Principal Investigator (PI) and / or Co-Principal Investigator(s) (Co PI(s))] should be Indian citizens. Foreign nationals (including OCI and NRI) are also eligible to apply provided they fulfil the eligibility criteria notified by SERB.

Statement 1 is correct. The effects of radioactive pollutant depend on:
1) Half-life 
2) Energy releasing capacity 
3) Rate of diffusion and deposition of the pollutant. 
4) Environmental factors like wind, temperature and rainfall also influence their effects.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The most important natural radioactive isotope in the hydrosphere is potassium-40, which is mostly found dissolved in water. Because of the lower salt concentration, the radioactivity of rivers is much less than that of seawater (and not vice-versa). 
Statement 3 is correct. Gamma ray is the strongest of the three radiations and can easily penetrate human skin. But it can only be blocked by a very thick, strong, massive piece of concrete.

Statement 1 is incorrect. Four models are recommended under the scheme and shall be eligible for incentive/ implementation namely 
1)    Gram Panchayat 2) SHG federation 3) Bul waste generator/entrepreneur 4) any eligible enterprise. So CBG plants can be set up at individual level also. 
Statement 2 is incorrect. It has been launched by Ministry of Drinking Water & Sanitation
Statement 3 is incorrect. Funds will be provided by the Central and State Government in the ratio of 60:40. The programme will be implemented using SLWM (solid and liquid waste management) funding pattern of SBM-G (Swachh—Bharat Mission-Gramin) Guidelines. 

The Food Corporation of India is a statutory body created and run by the Government of India. It is under the ownership of Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution, Government of India formed by the enactment of Food Corporation Act, 1964 by the Parliament of India. The Food Corporation of India was setup under the Food Corporation Act 1964, in order to fulfil following objectives of the Food Policy:
1) Effective price support operations for safeguarding the interests of the farmers. 
2) Distribution of food grains throughout the country for public distribution system 
3) Maintaining satisfactory level of operational and buffer stocks of food grains to ensure National Food Security To Encourage the use of animal records for the purpose of assessing the value of animals and farm management systems is the objective of Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR).

Option a is correct - Continental shelf is a seaward extension of the continent from the shoreline to the continental edge. Its width varies greatly, from a few miles in North Pacific off the continent of North America, to over 100 miles off North-west Europe. In some places where the coasts are extremely mountainous, such as rocky mountain and Andean coasts, the continental shelf may be entirely absent. Their shallowness enables sunlight to penetrate through the water, which encourages the growth of minute plants and other microscopic organisms. They are thus rich in planktons and form the richest fishing grounds in the world.
Option b is incorrect – Continental slope connects the continental shelf and the ocean basins. It begins where the bottom of the continental shelf sharply drops off into a steep slope. The gradient of the slope is about 1 in 20. The depth of the slope region varies between 200 and 3,000 m. 
Option c is incorrect – The seaward edge of the continental slope loses gradient at this depth and gives rise to continental rise. It has very little slope. Option d is incorrect – With increasing depth the rise becomes virtually flat and merges with the abyssal plain. These are the flattest and smoothest regions of the world because of terrigenous [denoting marine sediment eroded from the land] and shallow water sediments that buries the irregular topography. It covers nearly 40% of the ocean floor.

Pair 1 is incorrectly matched– Thal Ghat (also called as Thul Ghat or Kasara Ghat) is a ghat section (mountain incline or slope) in the Western Ghats near the town of Kasara in Maharashtra. The Thal Ghat is located on the busy Mumbai–Nashik route. 
Pair 2 is incorrectly matched – It connects Mumbai to Pune via Khopoli. Bhor ghat is a mountain pass which is located near Khandala, Maharashtra which is the famous hill station of Sahyadri range.
Pair 3 is correctly matched – The most prominent break in the Western Ghats is the Palghat gap (Palakkad Gap), which is about 40 km wide. The Palakkad Gap is located in the Western Ghats between the states of Tamil Nadu and Kerala, India at an elevation of about 140 m. The mountain pass is located between Nilgiri Hills in the north and Anaimalai Hills towards the south and connects Coimbatore in Tamil Nadu with Palakkad in Kerala. 
Pair 4 is correctly matched – Chorla Ghat is located very interestingly in the intersection of three states?— Goa, Maharashtra and Karnataka, just about some 50 kilometers from Panjim, Goa. It is a part of the Western Ghats in the Sahyadri mountain range, and is at an elevation of 800 metres

Statement 1 is incorrect. The threat of popular left movements did not lead the capitalist class to collaborate or compromise with imperialism. The issue before the capitalist class was not, whether to oppose imperialism or not, but that the path chosen to fight imperialism should not be such that it would threaten capitalism itself.
Statement 2 is correct. The Indian capitalist’s attitude had undergone significant changes on the issue of supporting national movements over time. During the Swadeshi Movement (1905-08), the capitalists remained opposed to the boycott agitation. Even during the Non-Cooperation Movement of the early ‘20s, a small section of the capitalists, including Purshottamdas, openly declared themselves enemies of the Non Cooperation Movement. However, during the 1930s Civil Disobedience Movement, the capitalists largely supported the movement.
Statement 3 is incorrect. The Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce & Industry (FICCI) was established in 1927, on the advice of Mahatma Gandhi by GD Birla and Purshottamdas Thakurdas. It is a non governmental trade association and advocacy group based in India.
 

1) Celebes sea: Earthquake hit,
2) Yellow Sea: Oil spill in April, 2021
3) Red sea: Sudan suspended an agreement which allowed Russia to build naval base in Red Sea.
4) Baltic Sea: Construction of Baltic pipe project to transport natural gas.
 

Statement 1 is incorrect. The government had initiated the National Electric Mobility Mission Plan in the year 2013 with an objective to put 6-7 million electric vehicles on Indian roads by 2020 and committing to achieve 30% e-mobility in the country by 2030.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Currently, Indian transportation sector accounts for one-third of the total crude oil consumed in the country, where 80% is being consumed by road transportation alone. It also accounts for around 11% of total CO2 emissions (and not 50% of total CO2 emissions) from fuel combustion.
 

Statement 1 is incorrect. Listed under the Endangered category of the IUCN Red List, the dhole is a wild canid found in the forests of central, south, and southeast Asia. It is not the only large carnivore in India that is under endangered category as per IUCN red list. Tiger is also included in the endangered category.
Statement 2 is correct. They are excellent athletic runners and fast swimmers too. They can jump big heights too.
Statement 3 is correct. India currently has the highest number of dholes, with most populations found in the Western Ghats, central India and northeast India.
 

Charles Cornwallis was the second governor-general of Bengal who served from 1786-1793. He is responsible for bringing in a number of reforms into the administration of British India, most famously through his Permanent Settlement System and Cornwallis Code. He is known as the father of civil services in India. Some major reforms introduced by him are –
1) He was the first to bring into existence and organise the civil services. He tried to check corruption through various measures like raising the civil servants’ salary. 
2) He organised a regular police force to maintain law and order by going back to and modernising the old Indian system of thanas (circles) in a district under a daroga (an Indian) and a superintendent of police (SP) at the head of a district. He relieved the zamindars of their police duties.
3) Under the Cornwallis Code, there was a separation of revenue and justice administration. — European subjects were also brought under jurisdiction. — Government officials were answerable to the civil courts for actions done in their official capacity. — The principle of sovereignty of law was established. There were separate courts for civil and criminal cases. 
4) Cornwallis introduced the Permanent Settlement of land revenue in Bengal and other parts of India. 
5) Private trade of the company was abolished completely.
6) Cornwallis Code (1793) incorporating several judicial reforms, and separation of revenue administration and civil jurisdiction.
7) Europeanisation of administrative machinery - Top posts were reserved for the Europeans whereas Indians were offered lower grade posts such as Peons and clerks
8) The District Fauzdari Courts were abolished and, instead, circuit courts were established at Calcutta, Dacca, Murshidabad and Patna. These circuit courts had European judges. 
9) Cornwallis abolished court fees and then lawyers were to prescribe their fees.

Option c is correct. Minilateralism refers to the diplomacy among a limited number of members, dealing with defined subject matters. Unlike multilateralism, which typically emphasises inclusivity, and nondiscrimination, minilateralism is often exclusive, with participation restricted only to those states that are directly involved in the matter. Examples of minilateralism are Quad Grouping, Lancang-Mekong Cooperation (LMC) mechanism, Sulu Sea trilateral patrols, and “Our Eyes” Initiative, an intelligence sharing network comprising six ASEAN member states. One-sided action by a nation disregarding the concern of other is called Unilateralism.

Option a is correct. Provisioning coverage ratio is prescribed percentage of funds to be set aside by banks for covering prospective loses due to bad loans. The Provisioning Coverage Ratio differs with asset quality. Lower the asset quality, higher will be the provisioning coverage ratio. Provisioning Coverage Ratio (PCR) is essentially the ratio of provisioning to gross non-performing assets and indicates the extent of funds a bank has kept aside to cover loan losses. Example: If the provisioning coverage ratio is 60% for a particular category of bad loans, banks have to set aside funds equivalent to 60% those bad assets out of their profits. The assets are classified by the RBI in terms of their duration of non-repayment (NPA, doubtful asset etc.).
Option b is correct. Gross Profit Ratio represents the operating profit of the company after adjusting the cost of the goods that are sold. The higher the gross profit ratio, the lower the cost of goods sold, and the greater satisfaction for the management. 
Option c is incorrect. Current Ratio represents the liquidity of the company in order to meet its obligations in the next 12 months. Higher the current ratio, the stronger the company to pay its current liabilities. However, a very high current ratio signifies that a lot of money is stuck in receivables that might not realize in the future. Capital adequacy ratio is the ratio of a bank’s capital in relation to its risk weighted assets and current liabilities. Option d is correct. Fixed asset turnover represents the efficiency of the company to generate revenue from its assets. In simple terms, it is a return on the investment in fixed assets.
 

Statement 1 is incorrect. Food irradiation (the application of ionizing radiation to food) is a technology that improves the safety and extends the shelf life of foods by reducing or eliminating microorganisms and insects. Food irradiation cannot kill viruses. 
Statement 2 is correct. Food Irradiation can inhibit sprouting (e.g., potatoes) and delay ripening of fruit to increase longevity.

Option a is incorrect. Coconut Development Board is a statutory body established by the Government of India for the integrated development of coconut production and utilization in the country with focus on productivity increase and product diversification. The Board which came into existence on 12th January 1981.
Option b is incorrect. Coconut Development Board functions under the administrative control of the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare, Government of India, with its Headquarters at Kochi in Kerala and Regional Offices at Bangalore in Karnataka, Chennai in Tamil Nadu, Guwahati in Assam and Patna in Bihar. There are five State Centres situated at Pitapally in Odissa, Kolkata in West Bengal, Thane in Maharashtra, Vijayawada in Andhra Pradesh and Port Blair in the Union Territory of Andaman & Nicobar Islands
Option c is incorrect. The Board provides financial and other assistance for the expansion of area under coconut. It also makes financing suitable schemes to increase the production of coconut and to improve the quality and yield of coconut.
Option d is correct. The functions of the Board include: 
1) Adopting measures for the development of coconut industry, inter alia.
2) Imparting technical advice to those engaged in coconut cultivation and industry.
3) Providing financial and other assistance for the expansion of area under coconut. 
4) Encouraging adoption of modern technologies for processing of coconut and its products. 
5) Adopting measures to get incentive prices for coconut and its products.
6) Recommending measures for improving marketing of coconut and its products. 
7) Recommending measures for regulating imports and exports of coconut and its products. 
8) Fixing grades, specifications and standards for coconut and its products.
9) Financing suitable schemes to increase the production of coconut and to improve the quality and yield of coconut.
10) Assisting, encouraging, promoting and financing agricultural, technological, industrial or economic research on coconut and its products.
11) Collecting statistics on coconut and its products and publishing them. 
12) Undertaking publicity activities and publishing books and periodicals on coconut and its products.

New look policy - Former US president Dwight D. Eiesenhower.
Look East Policy- P.V Narsimha Rao
Act East Policy-Narendra Modi
Neighbourhood First Policy- Narendra Modi.
 

Statement 1 is correct. In 1882, Mahatma Jotirao Phule submitted a representation to Sir William Hunter, Chairman of the Education Commission. This representation included the following points:
1) Primary Education should be compulsory.
2) Primary Education for women needs to be encouraged. 
3) Education to the people in India should be given in a useful manner with need - based contents 
4) Suggestions for the education of deprived children. 
5) Taking into consideration the problem of Universalisation of Education of the people in the lower strata of the society, Jotirao strongly opposed the 'Filtration Theory'. 
Statement 2 is correct. Hunter commission of education 1882, was appointed during the tenure of Viceroy Lord Ripon who served as the viceroy of India from 1880 to 1884. 
Statement 3 is correct. The Hunter Commission mostly confined its recommendations to primary and secondary education. It recommended transfer of control of primary education to newly set up district and municipal boards. Other recommendations include:
1) It emphasised that state’s special care is required for extension and improvement of primary education, and that primary education should be imparted through vernacular.
2) It recommended that secondary (High School) education should have two divisions— a. Literary — leading up to university. b. Vocational—for commercial careers. 
3) It drew attention to inadequate facilities for female education, especially outside presidency towns and made recommendations for its spread.

Statement 1 is incorrect. A foreign national, except a citizen of Bhutan, requires the Protected area permit to visit certain parts of India. Currently, Protected Areas are located in the following States: -
1) All of Arunachal Pradesh
2) Parts of Himachal Pradesh 
3) Parts of Ladakh 
4) Parts of Rajasthan 
5) Parts of Sikkim
6) Parts of Uttarakhand
Statement 2 is incorrect. Protected Area Permit is issued under the Foreigners (Protected Areas) Order, 1958. The order has been issued under the foreigners act, 1946. The Inner line permit is issued under the Bengal Eastern Frontier Regulation Act of 1853.
Statement 3 is correct. Ministry of Home Affairs is the main authority to administer the provisions related to Protected Area Permit.
 

Option a is incorrect. The zamindari system or the permanent settlement system was introduced by Lord Cornwallis in 1793 (and not by Warren Hastings). It fixed the land rights of the members in perpetuity without any provision for fixed rent or occupancy right for actual cultivators.
Option b is incorrect. Ryotwari settlement was practised in the Madras and Bombay areas, as well as Assam and Coorg provinces. Permanent settlement was implemented in Bengal, Bihar, Orissa, Varanasi and other areas. 
Option c is incorrect. Under the Mahalwari System (and not Permanent Settlement), the entire village was converted into one bigger unit called “mahal” and was treated as one unit for the payment of land revenue.
Option d is correct. Permanent Settlement was made with the rajas and taluqdars of Bengal. They were now classified as zamindars, and they had to pay the revenue demand that was fixed in perpetuity. In terms of this definition, the zamindar was not a landowner in the village, but a revenue Collector of the state. Knowledge Base: Ryotwari System, was devised by Captain Alexander Read and Sir Thomas Munro at the end of the 18th century and introduced by the latter when he was governor of Madras Presidency (1819–26). In 1822, Englishman Holt Mackenzie devised a new system known as the Mahalwari System in the North Western Provinces of the Bengal Presidency (most of this area is now in Uttar Pradesh).

Option a, c and d are correct. The Reserve Bank announced that it will be integrating consumer grievances redressal in banking, non-bank finance companies and digital transactions under a single ombudsman as against three schemes working at present. The move is intended to make the process of redress of grievances easier by enabling the customers of the banks, NBFCs and non-bank issuers of prepaid payment instruments to register their complaints under the integrated scheme, with one centralised reference point.
Option b is incorrect. Insurance sector is regulated by Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority (IRDA)

Statement 1 is correct. Wind is an intermittent and site-specific resource of energy. Intermittent means that which cannot be dispatched when there is demand. It gives variable power, which is consistent from year to year but varies greatly over shorter time scales. Therefore, it must be used together with other power sources to give a reliable supply. 
Statement 2 is incorrect. Gujarat has highest potential of wind energy with 84431.33 MW. Tamil Nadu has total potential of 33799.65MW and ranks 4 in overall potential. However Tamil Nadu ranks first in installed wind power with 9300 MW capacity.
Statement 3 is incorrect. In India there are two main maritime areas in which structures such as offshore wind farms can be built: 1) Indian territorial waters, which generally extend up to 12 nautical miles (nm) from the baseline; a 2) Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ), beyond the 12 nm limit and up to 200 nm, where under international law, India has right construct structures such as wind farm installations.
 

Statement 1 is correct: In 2018, AIIB was granted Permanent Observer status in the deliberations of both the United Nations General Assembly and the Economic and Social Council, the two development-focused principal organs of the global body. 
Statement 2 is correct: The Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB) launched the Sustainable Development Bond Framework to help the investor community better assess how the Bank is living up to its sustainability commitments. The framework clearly outlines how AIIB is adhering to the principles set out in its Environmental and Social Framework that guides project selection, and how it is helping its members to meet their commitments under the Paris Agreement and the UN Sustainable Development Goals. 
Statement 3 is correct: India has been the largest recipient of loans from AIIB with around $4.35 billion loans approved. Turkey was second with $1.95 billion loan granted. Knowledge Base: AIIB is a multilateral development bank with a mission to improve social and economic outcomes in Asia. AIIB currently has 93 members’ countries and Beijing acts as AIIB headquarter. India along with China has permanent seats on the AIIB board of directors.
 

Statement 1 is correct. A cryptocurrency is a digital or virtual currency that is secured by cryptography, which makes it nearly impossible to counterfeit or double-spend. 
Statement 2 is correct. Currently Cryptocurrencies in India are not illegal but are unregulated which means anybody can buy, sell and trade in cryptocurrencies. However, the Indian government is exploring crypto regulation. 
Statement 3 is incorrect. The e-Kuber is the Core Banking Solution of the RBI which enables each bank to connect their single current account across the country. Crypto exchanges like CoinSwitch Kuber are used to invest in Cryptocurrencies in India.
 

The term ‘Backsstop’ is related to Brexit. The Irish backstop is a proposed border arrangement that would eliminate the need for border checks between the Northern Ireland (Part of the United Kingdom) and Republic of Ireland for a few years, until the final trade agreements were signed between the UK and the European Union.

Option a is incorrect: The commercial coal mining auctions are completely different from earlier regime of restricted sectors. The entry of foreign players and non-coal dependent companies in the coal mining sector has been eased. 
Option b is incorrect: The companies which are not engaged in any coal-use industry can also participate in auction. They can mine and use coal for their own consumption, sell or for any other purposes. 
Option c is incorrect: The law earlier excluded companies without mining operations in India from participating in the auctions. This bar has been done away with, paving the way for local and foreign mining majors and non-mining ones, too, to participate in the domestic coal sector
Option d is correct: 100 per cent Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) is allowed through the automatic route
 

Pair 1 is correctly matched. The Diwani-arz was the military department of the state. The head of this department was called the ariz-i-mamalik. The ariz was not the commander-in-chief of the army, since the sultan himself commanded all the armed forces. The special responsibility of the ariz’s department was to recruit, equip and pay the army. 
Pair 2 is correctly matched. The Diwan-i-risalat dealt with religious matters, pious foundations and stipends to deserving scholars and men of piety. It was presided over by the chief sadr, who was generally a leading qazi. He was generally also the chief qazi. The chief qazi was the head of the department of justice.
Pair 3 is incorrectly matched. The diwan-i-insha dealt with state correspondence (and not Islamic law). All the correspondence, formal or confidential, between the ruler and the sovereigns of other states, and with his subordinate officials was dealt with by this department. Sadr-us-Suddar was the department of Islamic Law.
 

Option 1 is incorrect. As the western flowing rivers travel smaller distance over a more inclined terrain, they don’t get enough time to form deltas. For the formation of delta, the length of the river from the point of origin to the sea should be long enough.
Option 2 is correct. Presence of Hard rocks is a reason behind non-formation of deltas as the west flowing rivers, especially the Narmada and the Tapi, flow through hard rocks and hence do not carry any good amount of silt. 
Option 3 is correct. As west flowing rivers rapidly from steep slope and merges into Arabian sea so they form estuaries and not deltas. 
Option 4 is correct. The West flowing rivers flow through faults (linear rift, rift valley, trough) so much of the silt gets deposited there itself. Thus, less alluvium gives no opportunity in the formation of delta.
 

The principle of subsidiarity demands that a central authority should have a subsidiary function. It should perform only those tasks which cannot be performed at the local level. The principle implies that every issue should be decided at the lowest level that involves all those who are affected. 73rd and 74th constitutional amendment act which establishes the third-tier government in the form of Panchayat and municipalities is one manifestation of the principle of subsidiarity. In international relation, the Maastricht treaty which established the European Union reasserted the rights of member-nations through the principle of subsidiarty.

Option a is incorrect. The Koeppen’s scheme of Climatic classification is based upon annual and monthly values of temperature and precipitation, not only precipitation. 
Option b is correct. The scheme accepts the native vegetation as the best expression of totality of a climate. Therefore, many of the climatic boundaries are based upon vegetation. Koeppen has expressed the view that the effectiveness of precipitation in vegetation growth depends not only upon precipitation, but also upon the intensity of evaporation and transpiration. 
Option c and d are correct. The scheme identifies five major climatic types. Eg. Tropical Climates, where mean monthly temperature throughout the year is above 18-degree Celsius. Each type is further sub-divided into sub-types on the basis of seasonal variations in the distributional pattern of rainfall and temperature. The small letters demote: f (sufficient precipitation), m (rain forest despite a dry monsoon season), w (dry season in winter), h (dry and hot), c (less than four months with mean temperature over 10°C), and g (Gangetic plain).
 

Option c is correct. Some rivers of Afghanistan, such as the river Kubha is mentioned in the Rig Veda. The Sindhu, coterminous with the Indus is repeatedly mentioned. The Battle of Ten Kings was fought on the river Parushni, coterminous with the river Ravi. River Sarasvati, is called naditarna or the best of rivers in the Rig Veda. It is identified with the Ghaggar–Hakra channel in Haryana and Rajasthan. The entire region in which the Aryans first settled in the Indian subcontinent is called the Land of the Seven Rivers. River Narmada is nowhere mentioned in Rig Veda. Knowledge Base: The verse in Nadistuti sukta of Rigveda, hymn of praise of rivers, mentions the following 10 rivers: Ganga, Yamuna, Saraswati, Sutudri, Parusni, Asikni, Marudvrdha, Vitasta, Arjikiya, Susoma. The Shutudri was Sutlej, Asikni was Chenab and Vitasta was Jhelum.

Option a is correct. RUCO (Repurpose Used cooking oil)- It is an initiative to convert vegetable oils, animal fats or restaurant grease that has already been used in cooking into biodiesel for running diesel vehicles. It has been launched by the country’s apex food regulator, the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) in association with the Biodiesel Association of India (BDAI). 
Option b is correct. FSSAI under RUCO (Repurpose used cooking oil) initiative has fixed a limit for Total Polar Compounds (TPC) at 25% beyond which the vegetable oil shall not be used.
Option c is incorrect. Reheating and reuse of vegetable oil in commercial enterprises is not banned. Food Safety and Standards Authority of India suggests that, it is important to monitor quality of oil to avoid the use of degraded oil for cooking purposes. At present, there are general provisions in regulation to avoid re-use of cooking oil i.e. ‘re-heating and reuse of oil should be avoided as far as possible. Avoid using leftover oil wherever possible. 
Option d is correct. Dehradun-based Indian Institute of Petroleum has successfully finished a pilot test to convert used cooking oil into bio-aviation turbine fuel (Bio-ATF), which can be blended with conventional ATF and used as aircraft fuel.
 

Statement 1 is incorrect. There was no idea of mass education at the time of Chola rule. People learnt what they felt was needed for their livelihood. Reading and writing was confined to a small section, mostly Brahmans and some sections of the upper classes, especially Kayasthas. The main subjects studied were the various branches of the Vedas and grammar. Logic and philosophy were also studied. The study of politics which included political morality was popular among the nobility. A notable contribution to this branch of study was Kamandaka’s Nitisara.
Statement 2 is correct. Women could not serve as Brahmin priests or study the sacred Vedas. Some women could be seers, though. Furthermore, the marriageable age for girls was lowered, thereby destroying their opportunities for higher education. The omission of all reference to women teachers in the dictionaries written during the period shows the poor state of higher education among women.
Statement 3 is correct. Akbar laid down various educational reforms. He revised the educational syllabus, laying more emphasis on moral education and mathematics, and on secular subjects such as agriculture, geometry, astronomy, rules of government, logic, history, etc. He also gave patronage to artists, poets, painters and musicians, so much so that his court became famous for the galaxy of renowned people known as the navaratna. Thus, under Akbar, the state became essentially secular, liberal and enlightened in social matters, and a promoter of cultural integration.

Statement 1 is correct. According to the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940, The central drugs standard control organisation (CDSCO) is responsible for approval of drugs, approving the conduct of clinical trials, laying down the standards for drugs, control over the quality of imported drugs in the country. It also coordinates the activities of state drug control organisations by providing expert advice with a view of bring about the uniformity in the enforcement of the Drugs and Cosmetics Act. 
Statement 2 is incorrect. Clinical trials of new drugs and vaccines, and their approvals, are governed by the New Drugs and Clinical Trials Rules, 2019. The rules provide for ‘accelerated approval process’ in several situations like the current pandemic. In such situations, there is a provision for granting approval to a drug that is still in clinical trials, provided there is a prima facie case of the product being of meaningful therapeutic benefit.
Statement 3 is correct. As per the new Drugs and Clinical Trial Rules, 2019, the time for approving applications for clinical trial has been reduced to 30 days for drugs manufactured in India and 90 days for the drugs developed outside India.
 

Option a is incorrect. It is a central sector scheme to be implemented over a period of five years for facilitating sustainable ground water management with an outlay of INR 6000 crore. Out of this, INR 3,000 crore will be as loan from the World Bank and INR 3,000 crore as matching contribution from the Government of India (GoI). Option b is incorrect. The rate of depletion of groundwater is highest in the State of Punjab, still it is not covered by Atal Bhujal Yojana. It covers only the ground water stressed blocks in seven states namely Gujarat, Haryana, Karnataka, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh. 
Option c is incorrect. Investments on the use of industrial waste collection, treatment, and using it for recharging ground water is excluded from the purview of Atal Bhujal Yojna. Construction of major dams and new large-scale irrigation systems are also outside this scheme.
Option d is correct. The water budget will be prepared by the GP with the support of the Water Management Committees (WMC)/Village Water & Sanitation Committee (VWSC), aided by the District Implementation Partners engaged. A water budget is an account of the available water resources and their various uses. The purpose of the water budget is to assess surface and groundwater resources and identify current and future needs as a basis for planning.
 

Statement 1 is incorrect. PESA ensures self-governance through traditional Gram Sabhas for people living in the Scheduled Areas of India identified by the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India. Autonomous district council and regional councils are established in the sixth schedule areas.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The Panchayats (Extension to Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996 provides that the reservation of seats in the Scheduled Areas at every Panchayat shall be in proportion to the population of the communities. The reservation for the Scheduled Tribes shall not be less than one-half of the total number of seats; Moreover, all seats of Chairpersons of Panchayats at all levels shall be reserved for the Scheduled Tribes;
Statement 3 is correct. The Act makes the recommendations of the Gram Sabha or the Panchayats at the appropriate level mandatory for grant of prospecting licence or mining lease for minor minerals as well as for grant of concession for the exploitation of minor minerals by auction in the Scheduled Areas.
 

Option a is correct: Opposition is the event when the sun, Earth and an outer planet are lined up, with the Earth in the middle. The time of opposition is the point when the outer planet is typically also at its closest distance to the Earth for a given year, and because it is close, the planet appears brighter in the sky. 
Option b is incorrect: Solar eclipses happen when the New Moon comes between the Sun and Earth and blocks out the Sun's rays. Option c is incorrect: A total lunar eclipse takes place when the Earth comes between the Sun and the Full Moon and blocks the Sun's direct rays from lighting up the Moon. Option d is incorrect: Equinox occurs when the sun is vertically above the equator. At this time, the sun equally illuminates the Southern and Northern hemisphere. At this time the world experiences equal day and night. Equinox occur twice a year.
 

Option a is incorrect. The Servants of India Society was founded by Gopal Krishna Gokhale in 1905 with the help of M.G. Ranade. The aim of the society was to train national missionaries for the service of India; to promote, by all constitutional means, the true interests of the Indian people; and to prepare a cadre of selfless workers who were to devote their lives to the cause of the country in a religious spirit. 
Option b is incorrect. Seva Sadan was founded by Behramji M. Malabari in 1908 along with a friend, Diwan Dayaram Gidumal. Seva Sadan catered to all castes and provided the destitute women with education, and medical and welfare services.
Option c is correct. Social Service League was founded by Narayan Malhar Joshi, a follower of Gokhale, in Bombay with an aim to secure for the masses better and reasonable conditions of life and work. Their activities also included legal aid and advice to the poor and illiterate, excursions for slum dwellers, facilities for gymnasia and theatrical performances, sanitary work, medical relief and boy's clubs and scout corps. 
Option d is incorrect. Self-Respect Movement started by E.V. Ramaswamy Naicker, in the mid-1920s aimed at nothing short of a rejection of the Brahminical religion and culture which Naicker felt was the prime instrument of exploitation of the lower castes.
 

Statement a is incorrect: The Kingdom was divided into rashtra (provinces), visaya and bhukti. Bhukti was a smaller unit than visaya whereas in Pala and Pratihara empire bhukti represented a province. Statement b is correct: The visaya was a smaller unit than rashtra. It was like a modern district. Statement c is correct: The rashtrapati or governor was the head of rashtra. He sometimes enjoyed the status and title of a vassal king.
Statement d is correct: Below the territorial division (of rashtra, visaya and bhukti) was village. It was the basic unit of administration. The village administration was carried on by village headman and village accountant whose posts were generally hereditary. In the Rashtrakuta kingdom, the village headman was often helped in his duties by the village elder called as grama-mahajana or grama-mahattara.
 

Statement 1 is incorrect. The Indian newspapers had a wide reach and they stimulated a library movement. Their impact was not limited to cities and towns; these newspapers reached the remote villages, where each news item and editorial would be read and discussed thoroughly in the ‘local libraries which would gather around a single newspaper.
Statement 2 is correct. In 1921, on the recommendations of a Press Committee chaired by Tej Bahadur Sapru, the Press Acts of 1908 and 1910 were repealed. The Press Act of 1908 had empowered the magistrates to confiscate press property which published objectionable material likely to cause incitement to murder/acts of violence. The Press Act of 1910 empowered the local government to demand a security at registration from the printer/publisher and forfeit/deregister if it was an offending newspaper.
 

Statement 1 is incorrect. The “Decarbonising Transport in India” is five-year project which will help India develop a pathway towards a low-carbon transport system (not zero-carbon transport system) through the development of modeling tools and policy scenarios. It will provide the government with a detailed understanding of current and future transport activity and the related CO2 emissions as a basis for their decision-making. 
Statement 2 is incorrect. NITI Aayog in collaboration with International Transport Forum (ITF) of OECD (and not World Meteorological Organization) has jointly launched the “Decarbonising Transport in India” project, with the intention to develop a pathway towards a low-carbon transport system for India.
 

The World Bank group updates the Worldwide Governance Indicators (WGI) project The Worldwide Governance Indicators (WGI) project reports aggregate and individual governance indicators for over 200 countries and territories over the period 1996–2019, for six dimensions of governance: 
1) Voice and Accountability 
2) Political Stability and Absence of Violence 
3) Government Effectiveness 
4) Regulatory Quality 
5) Rule of Law 
6) Control of Corruption. 
The Worldwide Governance Indicators were updated every two years between 1996 and 2002. After 2002, they are updated on a yearly basis. Worldwide Governance Indicators is available on the World Bank’s database.
 

Statement 1 is incorrect. Agriculture was included as transferred subject in GOI act 1919. The Government of India Act, 1919 divided subjects into two lists: ‘reserved’ included subjects such as law and order, finance, land revenue, irrigation, etc., and ‘transferred’ subjects such as education, health, local government, industry, agriculture, excise, etc. The reserved subjects were to be administered by the governor through his executive council of bureaucrats, and the transferred subjects were to be administered by ministers nominated from among the elected members of the legislative council. 
Statement 2 is correct. After the disastrous famine period of 1896-1900, there was an emphasis on pushing for more internal administration reforms with greater vigour. In this context, Lord Curzon appointed a Commission chaired by Sir Colin Scott-Moncrieff in 1901 to draw up a comprehensive  irrigation plan for India. In 1903 the Commission's report recommended irrigation of an additional 2.6 million hectares. By 1947, the irrigated area had increased to about 22 million ha. 
Statement 3 is incorrect. For the Indian peasant, commercialisation seemed a forced process. There was hardly any surplus for him to invest in commercial crops, given the subsistence level at which he lived, while commercialisation linked Indian agriculture with international market trends and their fluctuations.

Option a and b are correct. The Wild Life (Protection) Act (WPA) of 1972 provided for the declaration of National Parks by the State Government. The Central Government may also declare, Wild Life Sanctuary and National Park under certain conditions. Thus, both State government and Central Government can both declare National parks. 
Option c is correct. National parks enjoy a greater degree of protection than wildlife sanctuaries. Unlike wildlife sanctuaries, no human interference in any form of harvesting of timber, collecting minor forest products and private ownership rights is allowed. Option d is incorrect. The State of Punjab does not have any National Park. National Capital Territory of Delhi and Union Territory of Chandigarh don’t have any National Park.

Statement 1 is incorrect. OPEC+ is a group of 24 oil-producing nations, made up of the 14 members of the Organization of Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC) and 10 other non-OPEC members, including Russia. The format was born in 2017 with a deal to coordinate oil production among the countries in a bid to stabilize prices.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Alternative energy is any energy source that does not use fossil fuel (coal, crude oil, or natural gas). Solar, wind, tidal, biomass, and geothermal energy are examples of alternative energy. OPEC Plus aims to manage the production of crude oil to stabilize oil prices. 
Statement 3 is incorrect. Russia is part of the OPEC+. Russia is the most influential producer of crude oil among the 10 non-OPEC countries that are part of OPEC+. 
Statement 4 is correct. OPEC consists of 14 members and accounts for 35% of global oil supplies. OPEC Plus accounts for 55% of global oil supply. Thus, OPEC+ is more influential than OPEC.

Option d is correct. Option a is incorrect. Both the Nagara and the Dravida-styled temples of south India followed the panchayatana ground plan, in which the main shrine was surrounded by four subsidiary shrines. 
Option b is incorrect. The Brihadishwara temple of Tanjore, dedicated to Lord Shiva, was built by Raja Raja Chola I between 1003 and 1010 AD and is a UNESCO World Heritage Site. It is situated on the banks of the river Kaveri in Thanjavur or Tanjore in Tamil Nadu.
Option c is incorrect. There is only one vimana in the Dravidian architecture on top of the main temple. The subsidiary shrines do not have vimanas, unlike Nagara architecture. 
Option d is correct. Airavatesvara Temple is a Hindu temple of Dravidian architecture located in the town of Darasuram in the Thanjavur District of Tamil Nadu. This temple, built by Rajaraja Chola II in the 12th century CE, is a UNESCO World Heritage Site, along with the Brihadeeswara Temple at Thanjavur and the Gangaikondacholisvaram Temple at Gangaikonda Cholapuram, which are referred to as the Great Living Chola Temples.

Statement 1 is correct. During the Rig Vedic period, the dasas and the dasyus, who were conquered by the Aryans, were treated as slaves and sudras. Slaves were given as gifts to priests. They were mainly women employed for domestic purposes. It is clear that in Rig Vedic times, slaves were not used directly in agriculture or other producing activities. 
Statement 2 is incorrect. For the first time in the Mauryan period (and not the Gupta times), slaves were engaged in agricultural work on a large scale. The state-maintained farms, on which numerous slaves and hired laborers were employed.
Statement 3 is incorrect. In some ways the position of sudras improved during the Gupta period (and not the Mauryan period). They were now permitted to listen to epics and Puranas. From the seventh century onwards, the sudras were mainly represented as agriculturists; in the earlier period they always appeared as servants, slaves, and agricultural laborers working for three higher wages. The villagers were also subjected to forced labor called vishti for serving the royal army and officials. Slaves could be handed down to descendants of their erstwhile owners. They are generally mentioned as domestic servants or personal attendants. employment of slaves in agricultural operations.

Option a is correct. The project works to establish a common and mutually agreed knowledge base to support policy debate and action to slow down and ultimately stop the increase of greenhouse gases in the atmosphere.
Option b is correct. The rising atmospheric concentrations of the main greenhouse gases, carbon dioxide (CO₂), methane (CH₄), and nitrous oxide (N₂O), have presented a challenge. The GCP has approached this challenge by focusing comprehensively on the global biogeochemical cycles that govern these three greenhouse gases, including their natural and human drivers. 
Option c is correct. As part of the project, an annual update of carbon emissions is prepared as part of the global carbon budget. The project also provides estimates and trends of methane and nitrous oxide. 
Option d is incorrect. The Global Carbon Project (GCP) was established in 2001 in recognition of the scientific challenge and critical importance of the carbon cycle for Earth's sustainability (and not at CoP 22 of UNFCCC).

Statement 1 is incorrect: It is an intergovernmental forum consisting of eight countries whose territory lies in the arctic zone. Members: Canada, Denmark (Greenland), Norway, Russia, the United States of America, Iceland, Finland, and Sweden. 
Statement 2 is incorrect: A non-Arctic state can obtain observer status in the council. Observers have no voting rights. As of 2021, 13 non-Arctic states have been granted observer status. Observers: Germany, Netherlands, Poland, United Kingdom, France, Spain, China, India, Italy, Japan, South Korea, Singapore, and Switzerland. 
Statement 3 is correct: The work of the Council is primarily carried out in six working groups. 
1) Arctic Contaminants Action Program (ACAP): to encourage national actions to reduce emissions and other releases of pollutants. 
2) Conservation of Arctic Flora and Fauna Working Group (CAFF): it addresses the conservation of Arctic biodiversity, working to ensure the sustainability of the Arctic’s living resources. 
3) Emergency Prevention, Preparedness, and Response Working Group (EPPR): it works to protect the Arctic environment from the threat or impact of an accidental release of pollutants or radionuclides. 
4) Protection of the Arctic Marine Environment (PAME) Working Group: it is the focal point of the Arctic Council’s activities related to the protection and sustainable use of the Arctic marine environment. 
5) Sustainable Development Working Group (SDWG): it works to advance sustainable development in the Arctic and to improve the conditions of Arctic communities as a whole. 
6) Arctic Monitoring and Assessment Programme (AMAP): it monitors the Arctic environment, ecosystems, and human populations and provides scientific advice to support governments as they tackle pollution and adverse effects of climate change.

Option a is incorrect. Bioelectricity is the electrical currents and electrical potentials generated by or occurring within living cells, tissues, and organisms. 
Option b is correct. A microbial fuel cell is a device that converts chemical energy to electrical energy by the action of microorganisms and uses bacteria as the catalyst to oxidize organic and inorganic matter to generate electric current. It has applications in various fields such as power generation systems, bio-recovery, and wastewater treatment. 
Option c is incorrect. The creation of an organic compound in a living organism is referred to as biosynthesis. Biosynthesis refers to the production of a complex chemical compound from simpler precursors in a living organism. It usually involves enzymes that will catalyze the reaction and an energy source (e.g., ATP). Examples of biosynthesis include photosynthesis.

Statement 1 is correct. Compoundable offenses are those offenses where the complainant (one who has filed the case, i.e., the victim) can enter into a compromise and agree to have the charges dropped against the accused. Compoundable offenses are less serious criminal offenses. In some cases, court permission is required before compounding.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Cognizable offense means an offense for which a police officer may arrest without a warrant. Cognizable offenses are usually serious in nature. In cognizable offenses, the police can initiate an investigation of the case without seeking permission from the magistrate. In case of a non-cognizable offense, the police cannot arrest the accused without a warrant and cannot start an investigation without the permission of the court.

Statement 1 is correct: Article 366(2) provides a definition of an Anglo-Indian person. The term Anglo-Indian first appeared in the Government of India Act, 1935. Article 366(2) of the Constitution Of India states that “An Anglo-Indian means a person whose father or any of whose other male progenitors in the male line is or was of European descent but who is domiciled within the territory of India and is or was born within such territory of parents habitually resident therein and not established there for temporary purposes only…” 
Statement 2 is incorrect: Parliament passed the Constitution (104th Amendment) Act, Act,2020 extending reservation for SC/STs but removing the provision for nomination of Anglo Indians to Lok Sabha and state assemblies. 
Statement 3 is incorrect: Earlier, Article 333 of the constitution of India allowed the governor of a state to nominate one member of the Anglo-Indian community in the legislative assembly of the state.

The ‘doctrine of essentiality’ was invented by a seven-judge bench of the Supreme Court in the ‘Shirur Mutt’ case in 1954. The doctrine is used to determine whether any religious practice or tradition is essential feature of the religion which would be protected under article 25 (the fundamental right to freely profess, practice and propagate religion) The court held that the term “religion” will cover all rituals and practices that are “integral” to a religion.

Statement 1 is correct. It is a sub-scheme of the Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (Urban) that is implemented by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs. 
Statement 2 is incorrect. Existing vacant government-funded housing complexes will be converted into ARHCs through concession agreements. There will be no new construction of residential complexes. The concessionaire will make the complexes livable by repairing/retrofitting and maintaining rooms and filling up infrastructure gaps. 
Statement 3 is correct. Target beneficiaries-a large part of the workforce who come from rural areas or small towns seeking better opportunities—will be the target beneficiaries under ARHCs.

Option a is correct. The ‘IndiGen’ initiative is to map genome sequencing of a larger swathe of the population in the country. The project aims to widen public understanding in India about genomes and the information that genes hide about one’s susceptibility to disease. Under the ‘IndiGen’ initiative, those who do get their genes mapped will get a card and access to an app, which will allow them and doctors to access “clinically actionable information” on their genomes.

Explanation: Black soils are formed due to the weathering and denudation of volcanic rocks, that is, the solidification of lava after volcanic eruptions.
Black soil covers most of the Deccan Plateau, including parts of Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat, Andhra Pradesh, and some parts of Tamil Nadu.
The black soil is very deep in the upper reaches of the Godavari and the Krishna and the northwestern part of the Deccan Plateau. These soils are also known as the ‘Regur Soil’ or the ‘Black Cotton Soil.’
The black soils are generally clayey, deep, and impermeable. They swell and become sticky when wet and shrink when dried. So, during the dry season, these soils develop wide cracks. Thus, there occurs a kind of ‘self-ploughing.’
Because of this character of slow absorption and loss of moisture, the black soil retains the moisture for a very long time, which helps the crops, especially the rain-fed ones, to sustain even during the dry season.
Chemically, the black soils are rich in lime, iron, magnesia, and alumina. They also contain potash. But they lack phosphorus, nitrogen, and organic matter. The colour of the soil ranges from deep black to grey.

The Digital Dollar Project is a partnership between Accenture and the Digital Dollar Foundation to advance exploration of a United States Central Bank Digital Currency (CBDC). CBDCs are the digital equivalent of banknotes and coins, giving holders a direct digital claim on the central bank and allowing them to make instant electronic payments. Cash and digital dollars would be fully fungible and interchangeable. The project will consider appropriate technological approaches to issuing a digital dollar.

Statement 1 is correct. Amazon rainforests cover 6% of the world’s area and are home to a large number of flora and fauna, and thus they are known as the lungs of planet earth.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The Prairies (not Amazon) were home to other tribes also, like the Apache, the Crow, the Cree, and the Pawnee. Kawahiva, Korubo, and Piripkura are some famous tribes of Amazon rainforests. 
Statement 3 is correct. The Amazon Basin stretches directly on the equator and is characterized by a hot and wet climate throughout the year. Both days and nights are almost equally hot and humid, and it usually rains almost every day.

Statement 1 is incorrect. Track 1.5 refers to dialogue in which official and non-official actors work together to resolve conflicts. This occurs in an informal environment devoid of any protocol. 
Statement 2 is incorrect. In Track 2 Diplomacy, unofficial dialogue and problem-solving activities are organized. Track 2 diplomacy brings together unofficial representatives on both sides, with no government participation.

Option a is incorrect: Working hours are restricted to 9 hours per day for children. They were further reduced to 7 hours a day by the Factory Act of 1891
Option b is correct: The Indian Factory Act, 1881, dealt primarily with the problem of child labor (between 7 and 12 years of age). It banned the employment of children below 7 years of age. The Factories Act, 1891, further increased the minimum age to 9 years.
Option c is incorrect: It provided for a weekly holiday for children. This was later extended to all workers by the Factories Act, 1891. 
Option d is incorrect: Both the Factory Acts of 1881 and 1891 did not apply to British-owned tea and coffee plantations where the labor was exploited ruthlessly and treated like slaves. The government helped these planters by passing laws such as those that made it virtually impossible for a laborer to refuse to work once a contract was entered into. A breach of contract was a criminal offense, with a planter having the right to get the defaulting laborer arrested.

Chilika Lake is situated on the east coast of India and connected to the Bay of Bengal through a narrow sea mouth; Chilika is also a lagoon. And like all coastal lagoons, its waters are rich with life. It is the largest brackish water lagoon with estuarine character that sprawls along the east coast. It is the largest wintering ground for migratory waterfowl found anywhere on the Indian subcontinent. The population of Irrawaddy or snubfin dolphins (locally known as "Bhuasuni Magar") is threatened due to intensive fishing and plying of mechanized boats in the lake. At present there are about 80-90 Irrawaddy dolphins in the entire lake. Arribada is a mass nesting beach (rookery) along the Chilika coast located at Rushikulya, which is located on the southern Odisha coast. It spreads over six km. The Nalabana island is part of the Chilika Lake and is home to large flocks of migratory birds that make their way to the lagoon every year during winter. The island within the lagoon is notified as a bird sanctuary under the Wildlife (Protection) Act. The illegal farming dealt a compounding blow to the lake’s ecosystem. The prawn juveniles that were reared grew in size, feeding on most of the phytoplankton, which are a crucial part of the marine environment.

Statement 1 is correct—the cooling may take place either on reaching the surface or also while the lava is still in the crustal portion. Depending on the location of the cooling of the lava, igneous rocks are classified as volcanic rocks (cooling at the surface) and plutonic rocks (cooling in the crust). 
Statement 2 is incorrect—the near-horizontal bodies of the intrusive igneous rocks are called sills or sheets, depending on the thickness of the material. The thinner ones are called sheets, while the thick horizontal deposits are called sills.
Statement 3 is incorrect— Laccoliths are large, dome-shaped intrusive bodies connected to a pipe-like conduit from below. Photoliths are found at the base of synclines or at the top of anticlines.