Results

• Freedom of Religion is a Fundamental Right provided under Articles 25-28 of the Constitution. Freedom of religion also includes the freedom of conscience. This means that a person may choose any religion or may choose not to follow any religion. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Freedom of Religion includes the right to not just practice one’s religion but also to propagate it. This includes persuading people to join one’s religion and wilful conversion from one religion to another. However, the Constitution bars forceful conversions and conversions done by inducements. In Stanislaus V/S State of Madhya Pradesh Case,1977, the Supreme Court of India considered the issue whether the fundamental right to practise and propagate religion includes the right to convert and held that the right to propagate does not include the right to convert. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
• Freedom of Religion is available to not just Indian citizens but also to foreign nationals residing within Indian territory. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

The features of parliamentary government in India are:
• Presence of nominal and real executives
• Majority party rule,
• Collective responsibility of the executive to the legislature,
• Membership of the ministers in the legislature,
• Leadership of the prime minister or the chief minister,
• Dissolution of the lower House (Lok Sabha or Assembly).
There are some differences between the British Parliamentary system and that of India. For example, the Indian Parliament is not a sovereign body like the British Parliament. Also, the Indian State has an elected head (republic) while the British State has hereditary head (monarchy).

 Article 360 empowers the President to proclaim a Financial Emergency if he is satisfied that a situation has arisen due to which the financial stability or credit of India or any part of its territory is threatened. The 38th Amendment Act of 1975 made the satisfaction of the President in declaring a Financial Emergency final and conclusive and not questionable in any court on any ground. But, this provision was subsequently deleted by the 44th Amendment Act of 1978 implying that the satisfaction of the President is not beyond judicial review.

• The Composition of the NITI Aayog is as follows:
1. Chairperson: The Prime Minister of India
2. Governing Council: It comprises the Chief Ministers of all the States, Chief Ministers of Union Territories with Legislatures (i.e., Delhi andPuducherry) and Lt. Governors of other Union Territories.
3. Regional Councils: These are formed to address specific issues and contingencies impacting more than one state or a region. These are formed for a specified tenure. These are convened by the Prime Minister and comprises of the Chief Ministers of States and Lt. Governors of Union Territories in the region. These are chaired by the Chairperson of the NITI Aayog or his nominee.
4. Special Invitees: Experts, specialists and practitioners with relevant domain knowledge as special invitees nominated by the Prime Minister.
5. Full-time Organisational Framework: It comprises, in addition to the Prime Minister as the Chairperson:
Vice-Chairperson: He is appointed by the Prime Minister. He enjoys the rank of a Cabinet Minister.
Members: Full-time. They enjoy the rank of a Minister of State.
Part-time Members: Maximum of 2, from leading universities, research organisations and other relevant institutions in an ex-officio capacity. Part-time members would be on a rotation.
Ex-Officio Members: Maximum of 4 members of the Union Council of Ministers to be nominated by the Prime Minister.
Chief Executive Officer: He is appointed by the Prime Minister for a fixed tenure, in the rank of Secretary to the Government of India.
Secretariat: As deemed necessary.

• Ministry of Environment, Forest, and Climate Change has recently released the ‘India State of Forest Report 2021’. It provides information on forest cover, tree cover, mangrove cover, growing stock, carbon stock in India’s forests, forest fire monitoring, forest cover in tiger reserve areas, above ground estimates of biomass in Indian forests.
• Statement 1 is not correct: It is published biennially (and not annually) by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MOEFCC) which is prepared by the Forest Survey of India (FSI). It has been mandated to assess the forest and tree resources of the country.
• Statement 2 is not correct: As per the reported increase of 2,261 sq km in the total forest and tree cover of the country in the last two years. As compared to the assessment of 2019, there is an increase of 2,261 sq km in the total forest and tree cover of the country. An increase in forest cover has been observed in the open forests followed by very dense forests.
• Statement 3 is not correct: Maximum increase in forest cover witnessed in Andhra Pradesh (647 sq km) followed by Telangana (632 sq km) and Odisha (537 sq km). Area-wise Madhya Pradesh has the largest forest cover in the country followed by Arunachal Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Odisha, and Maharashtra.

• Statement 1 correct: Unlike the USA, where it has two sets of constitutions for center and states, India has a single constitution for both states and center. The Indian constitution is also flexible unlike the case of a true federation where it will be rigid. This is a centralizing tendency as states boundaries can be altered by the center.
• Statement 2 correct: The candidates selected for All India services were recruited and trained by the center but are to be served in the states, which do not have the capacity to 'remove' them.
• Statement 3 correct: The governor having many discretionary powers at the state is appointed by the center. This is one of the major centralizing tendencies.

• Democracy as a form of government only ensures that people take their own decisions. This does not guarantee that their decisions will be good. People can make mistakes. Involving the people in these decisions does lead to delays in decision making. It is also true that democracy leads to frequent changes in leadership. Sometimes this can set back big decisions and affect the government’s efficiency.
• Democracy may lead to corruption for it is based on electoral competition due to more expenditure in elections, criminalisation of politics, etc.
• Democracy is based on consultation and discussion. A democratic decision always involves many persons, discussions and meetings. When a number of people put their heads together, they are able to point out possible mistakes in any decision. This takes time. But there is a big advantage in taking time over important decisions. This reduces the chances of rash or irresponsible decisions. Thus, democracy improves the quality of decision-making.

• The first phase of the census and collection of details to update the National Population Register (NPR) have been postponed at least till September 2022.
• The NPR is a list of “usual residents of the country”.
• According to the Home Ministry, a “usual resident of the country” is one who has been residing in a local area for at least the last six months or intends to stay in a particular location for the next six months.
• NPR is not a citizenship enumeration drive, as it would record even a foreign national staying in a locality for more than six months.
• This makes NPR different from the NRC, which includes only Indian citizens while seeking to identify and exclude non-citizens. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• The NPR is being prepared under provisions of the Citizenship Act, 1955 and the Citizenship (Registration of Citizens and issue of National Identity Cards) Rules, 2003.
• It is mandatory for every “usual resident of India” to register in the NPR. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Only Assam will not be included (as per a notification by the Registrar General of India in August), given the recently completed NRC in that state
• NPR will be conducted in conjunction with the house-listing phase, the first phase of the Census, by the Office of Registrar General of India (RGI) for Census 2021.
• It is conducted at the local, sub-district, district, state and national levels.
• The data for NPR was first collected in 2010 along with the house-listing phase of Census 2011.
Hence statement 3 is correct.
• In 2015, this data was updated by conducting door-to-door surveys.

Sachar Committee suggested to set up an Equal Opportunity Commission for looking into the grievances of deprived groups; to develop an appropriate diversity index in education, workplaces and living spaces, to set up a National Data Bank and an autonomous Assessment & Monitoring System.

Statement 1 is not correct: Though the word “Secular” was not added to the Preamble initially, the Indian Constitution has been secular from the beginning. It has Freedom of Religion (Art 25-28) and Protection of rights of minorities (Art 29-30) as Fundamental Rights. However, Indian secularism is different from the Western concept of secularism, where religion is treated as a personal matter and there is a strict separation between religion and State. In India, State can regulate economic, political, and secular activities related to religious practices, for example- throwing open Hindu religious institutions to all sections.
• Statement 2 is correct: As per Art 29(2), no citizen can be denied entry into any educational institute maintained by the State only on the grounds of religion, race, caste, or any of them.
• Statement 3 is not correct: The Freedom of Religion is not absolute. The Constitution provides for certain limitations on them. For example, every religious denomination has the right to establish and maintain institutions for religious and charitable purposes. But this is subject to restrictions of public order, morality, and health.

The Union Territories in India have been created for a variety of reasons. These are mentioned below:
• Political and administrative consideration-Delhi and Chandigarh.
• Cultural distinctiveness-Puducherry, Dadra and Nagar Haveli, and Daman and Diu.
• Strategic importance-Andaman and the Nicobar Islands and Lakshadweep.
• Special treatment and care of the backward and tribal people-Mizoram, Manipur, Tripura, and Arunachal Pradesh which later became states.
• Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

World Employment and Social Outlook is the flagship report of International Labour Organisation (ILO). World Employment and Social Outlook: Trends 2022 warns of a slow and uncertain recovery, as the pandemic continues to have a significant impact on global labour markets. It examines the impacts of the crisis on global and regional trends in employment, unemployment and labour force participation, as well as on job quality, informal employment and working poverty. It also offers an extensive analysis of trends in temporary employment both before and during the COVID-19 crisis. This year’s report provides a comprehensive assessment of how the labour market recovery has unfolded across the world in response
to different country measures to tackle the pandemic. It analyses global patterns, regional differences and outcomes across economic sectors and groups of workers. It also presents projections for the expected labour market recovery.
• Hence option (b) is the correct answer.

Article 169 provides for abolition or creation of the legislative councils in states. Any creation or abolition of the legislative council in state will need an amendment of the constitution but it will be of first category (not deemed to be amendment under article 368) and to be passed by simple majority.

Statement 1 is correct: Article 280 of the Constitution of India provides for a Finance Commission. It is a quasi -judicial body. The Finance Commission shall have all powers of civil court under Code of Civil Procedure (1908) in matters of summoning & enforcing attendance and requisitioning any public record from any court of office. Also Finance Commission shall be deemed to be a civil court for purposes of sections 480 and 482 of the CrPC provided under Finance Commission Act
• It is constituted by the President of India every fifth year or at such earlier time as he considers necessary.
• Statement 2 is not correct: The Finance Commission consists of a chairman and four other members to be appointed by the President. They hold office for such period as specified by the President in his order.
• Statement 3 is correct: They are eligible for reappointment.

Right against Exploitation includes Article 23 and 24 of the Constitution.
• Article 23 prohibits traffic in human beings, begar (forced labour) and other similar forms of forced labour.
• Article 24 prohibits the employment of children below the age of 14 years in any factory, mine or other hazardous activities like construction work or railway.
• Protection against arrest and detention is provided under Article 22 and is under Right to Freedom (Article 19-22).

Both the Dhar commission and JVP committee rejected language as the basis for the reorganization of states. Fazl Ali's commission broadly accepted language as the criteria for the reorganization of states, however, it rejected one - language -one - state policy.
• Hence option (c) is the correct answer.

The procedure for the amendment of the Constitution as laid down in Article 368 is as follows:
An amendment of the Constitution can be initiated only by the introduction of a bill for the purpose in either House of Parliament and not in the state legislatures.
The bill can be introduced either by a minister or by a private member and does not require prior permission of the president. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
The bill must be passed in each House by a special majority, that is, a majority (that is, more than 50 per cent) of the total membership of the House and a majority of two-thirds of the members of the House present and voting. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
Each House must pass the bill separately. In case of a disagreement between the two Houses, there is no provision for holding a joint sitting of the two Houses for the purpose of deliberation and passage of the bill.
If the bill seeks to amend the federal provisions of the Constitution, it must also be ratified by the legislatures of at least half of the states by a simple majority, that is, a majority of the members of the House present and voting.
After duly passed by both the Houses of Parliament and ratified by the state legislatures, where necessary, the bill is presented to the president for assent.
The President must give his assent to the bill. He can neither withhold his assent to the bill nor return the bill for reconsideration of the Parliament.
 

Statement 1 is correct. Indian Councils Act of 1861 empowered Viceroys to issue ordinances without the concurrence of the legislative council, during an emergency. The life of such an ordinance was 6 months.
• Statement 2 is correct. It made a beginning of representative institutions by associating Indians with the law-making process. It thus provided that the viceroy should nominate some Indians as non-official members of his expanded council. In 1862, Lord Canning, the then viceroy, nominated three Indians to his legislative council-the Raja of Benaras, the Maharaja of Patiala, and Sir Dinkar Rao.
• Statement 3 is not correct. The office was created under the provisions of the Act of 1858 (Act for Good Governance of India)
 

The members from the princely stats were nominated and members from that of British Provinces were elected indirectly from the Provincial Legislative Assemblies, but not directly by the people.
• Hence option (c) is the correct answer.

It was in 1934 that the idea of a Constituent Assembly for India was put forward for the first time by M. N. Roy, a pioneer of communist movement in India and an advocate of radical democratism. In 1935, the Indian National Congress (INC), for the first time, officially demanded a Constituent Assembly to frame the Constitution of India. In 1938, Jawaharlal Nehru, on behalf the INC declared that ‘the Constitution of free India must be framed, without outside interference, by a Constituent Assembly elected on the basis of adult franchise’.
 

In addition to the Attorney General, there are other law officers of the Government of India. They are the Solicitor General of India and additional Solicitor General of India. They assist the Attorney General in the fulfillment of his official responsibilities. It should be noted here that only the office of the Attorney General is created by the Constitution. In other words, Article 76 does not mention about the Solicitor General and additional Solicitor General.

Article 33 empowers the Parliament to restrict or abrogate the fundamental rights of the members of armed forces, para-military forces, police forces, intelligence agencies, and analogous forces. The objective of this provision is to ensure the proper discharge of their duties and the maintenance of discipline among them. The power to make laws under Article 33 is conferred only on Parliament and not on state legislatures. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Any such law made by Parliament cannot be challenged in any court on the ground of contravention of any of the fundamental rights. Hence statement 2 is correct. Accordingly, the Parliament has enacted the Army Act (1950), the Navy Act (1950), the Air Force Act (1950), the Police Forces (Restriction of Rights) Act, 1966, the Border Security Force Act and so on. These impose restrictions on their freedom of speech, right to form associations, right to be members of trade unions or political associations, right to communicate with the press, right to attend public meetings or demonstrations, etc.
• The expression ‘members of the armed forces’ also covers such employees of the armed forces as barbers, carpenters, mechanics, cooks, chowkidars, bootmakers, tailors who are non-combatants. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
 

Article 19(2) provides that reasonable restrictions can be imposed on exercise of Freedom of Speech and expression under the following conditions: the sovereignty and integrity of India, the security of the State, friendly relations with foreign States, public order, decency or morality, or in relation to contempt of court, defamation or incitement to an offence.
Leaking classified material by Intelligence officer. - can compromise security of state
Giving speech to take up arms - public order is disturbed
Speech which can hamper stability of government in Lok Sabha - it does not fall under any criteria and hence would not be a reasonable restrictions
Contempt of Court comes under reasonable restrictions

Option (a) is correct. This act divided the Provincial subjects into two parts- transferred and reserved. Transferred subjects were to be administered by the governor with the help of ministers while the reserved list was to be administered by a governor and his executive council. This was termed a dual system of governance or Diarchy.
• Option (b) is correct. It replaced Indian Legislative Council with a Bicameral legislature consisting of two houses. The elections to both the houses were largely by direct elections.
• Option (c) is correct. It separated, for the first time, provincial budgets from the Central budget and authorized the provincial legislatures to enact their budgets.
• Option (d) is not correct. The separate electorate for Muslims was introduced in the act of 1909 itself. This provision was extended to Sikhs, Indian Christians, Anglo Indians, and Europeans.

Articles 358 and 359 describe the effect of a National Emergency on Fundamental Rights. Article 358 deals with the suspension of the Fundamental Rights guaranteed by Article 19, while Article 359 deals with the suspension of other Fundamental Rights (except those guaranteed by Articles 20 and 21).
• According to Article 358, when a proclamation of national emergency is made, the six Fundamental Rights under Article 19 are automatically suspended. No separate order for their suspension is required.
• The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 restricted the scope of Article 358 in two ways.
Firstly, the six Fundamental Rights under Article 19 can be suspended only when the National Emergency is declared on the ground of war or external aggression and not on the ground of armed rebellion. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
Secondly, only those laws which are related to the Emergency are protected from being challenged and not other laws. Also, the executive action taken only under such a law is protected.
• Article 359 authorizes the president to suspend the right to move any court for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights during a National Emergency. (Hence statement 2 is correct). This means that under Article 359, the Fundamental Rights as such are not suspended, but only their enforcement. The said rights are theoretically alive but the right to seek remedy is suspended. The suspension of enforcement relates to only those Fundamental Rights that are specified in the Presidential Order. Further, the suspension could be for the period during the operation of emergency or for a shorter period as mentioned in the order, and the suspension order may extend to the whole or any part of the country. It should be laid before each House of Parliament for approval.
• The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 restricted the scope of Article 359 in two ways.
Firstly, the President cannot suspend the right to move the Court for the enforcement of fundamental rights guaranteed by Articles 20 to 21. In other words, the right to protection in respect of conviction for offenses (Article 20) and the right to life and personal liberty (Article 21) remain enforceable even during an emergency. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
Secondly, only those laws which are related to the emergency are protected from being challenged and not other laws and the executive action taken only under such a law, is protected.

The government has made many policies and laws to implement the DPSPs.
• Option 1 is correct as article 41 talks about securing the right to work, to education and to public assistance in cases of unemployment, old age, sickness and disablement.
• Option 2 is correct: as it is aimed to implement Article 50 which explicitly calls for the separation of judiciary and the executive. The Criminal Procedure Code (1973) separated the judiciary from the executive in the public services of the state. Thus, the judicial powers vested with the district authorities like Collectors, Tehsildars etc was taken away.
• Option 3 is correct: as it is aimed to implement Article 48 under the DPSP’s which calls for the modernization of Agriculture and Animal Husbandry.
• Option 4 is correct: as it is aimed to provide living wages and work opportunities. Article 41 calls for providing Right to work while Article 43 calls for provision of living wages to all workers.

One thing that has had a long lasting effect on the evolution of the Indian Constitution is the theory of the basic structure of the Constitution. The Judiciary advanced this theory in the famous case of Kesavananda Bharati in 1973. This ruling has contributed to the evolution of the Constitution in the following ways:
1. It has set specific limits to Parliament’s power to amend the Constitution. It says that no amendment can violate the basic structure of the Constitution;
2. It allows Parliament to amend any and all parts of the Constitution (within this limitation); and
3. It places the Judiciary as the final authority in deciding if an amendment violates basic structure and what constitutes the basic structure.
• The theory of basic structure is an example of a living constitution. There is no mention of this theory in the Constitution. It has emerged from judicial interpretation. Thus, the Judiciary and its interpretation have practically amended the Constitution without a formal amendment. All living documents evolve in this manner through debates, arguments, competition and practical politics.
• Since 1973, the Court has, in many cases, elaborated upon this theory of basic structure and given instances of what constitutes the basic structure of the Constitution of India. So, the basic structure doctrine has further consolidated the balance between rigidity and flexibility: by saying that certain parts cannot be amended, it has underlined the rigid nature while by allowing amendments to all others it has underlined the flexible nature of the amending process.

Article 22 grants protection to persons who are arrested or detained. Detention is of two types, namely, punitive and preventive. Punitive detention is to punish a person for an offence committed by him after trial and conviction in a court. Preventive detention, on the other hand, means detention of a person without trial and conviction by a court. Its purpose is not to punish a person for a past offence but to prevent him from committing an offence in the near future.
• Article 22 has two parts—the first part deals with the cases of ordinary law and the second part deals with the cases of preventive detention law.
• The second part of Article 22 grants protection to persons who are arrested or detained under a preventive detention law. This protection is available to both citizens as well as aliens and includes the following:
1. The detention of a person cannot exceed three months unless an advisory board reports sufficient cause for extended detention. The board is to consist of judges of a high court.
2. The grounds of detention should be communicated to the detenu. However, the facts considered to be against the public interest need not be disclosed.
3. The detenu should be afforded an opportunity to make a representation against the detention order.
• A person has the right to be released after 24 hours (unless the magistrate authorises further detention) only if he is arrested under ordinary law. It is not applicable in case of preventive detention law. Hence, only statement 3 is correct.
 

Based on the report of the Sarkaria Commission on Centre–State Relations (1988), the Supreme Court in Bommai case (1994) enlisted the situations where the exercise of power under Article 356 could be proper or improper.
• The imposition of President’s Rule in a state would be proper in the following situations:
1. Where after general elections to the assembly, no party secures a majority, that is, ‘Hung Assembly’.
2. Where the party having a majority in the assembly declines to form a ministry and the governor cannot find a coalition ministry commanding a majority in the assembly.
3. Where a ministry resigns after its defeat in the assembly and no other party is willing or able to form a ministry commanding a majority in the assembly.
4. Where a constitutional direction of the Central government is disregarded by the state government.
5. Internal subversion where, for example, a government is deliberately acting against the Constitution and the law or is fomenting a violent revolt.
6. Physical breakdown where the government wilfully refuses to discharge its constitutional obligations endangering the security of the state.
• The imposition of President’s Rule in a state would be improper under the following situations:
1. Where a ministry resigns or is dismissed on losing majority support in the assembly and the governor recommends imposition of President’s Rule without probing the possibility of forming an alternative ministry.
2. Where the governor makes his own assessment of the support of a ministry in the assembly and recommends imposition of President’s Rule without allowing the ministry to prove its majority on the floor of the Assembly.
3. Where the ruling party enjoying majority support in the assembly has suffered a massive defeat in the general elections to the Lok Sabha such as in 1977 and 1980.
4. Internal disturbances not amounting to internal subversion or physical breakdown
5. Maladministration in the state or allegations of corruption against the ministry or stringent financial exigencies of the state.
6. Where the state government is not given prior warning to rectify itself except in case of extreme urgency leading to disastrous consequences.
7. Where the power is used to sort out intra-party problems of the ruling party, or for a purpose extraneous or irrelevant to the one for which it has been conferred by the Constitution.

Statement 1 is correct. Any bill contemplating the changes with regard to the reorganization of states can be introduced in the parliament only with the prior recommendation of the President.
• Statement 2 is not correct. Under article 3 of the Constitution, the parliament's power to diminish the areas of a state does not include the power to cede Indian territory to a foreign state. Indian territory can be ceded to a foreign state only by amending the Constitution under Article 368.
• Statement 3 is not correct. Any bill aiming to reorganize the states shall be passed in the parliament by a simple majority.

The Preamble of the Constitution defines the Indian Republic as Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, and Democratic. Of these, Sovereign and Democratic were part of the Preamble adopted by the Constituent Assembly.
• Socialists and Secular were added to the Preamble by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976. Also, the word 'integrity' was added by the same act.

The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 abolished the right to property as a Fundamental Right by repealing Article 19(1)(f) and Article 31 from Part III. Instead, the Act inserted a new Article 300A in Part XII under the heading ‘Right to Property’. It provides that no person shall be deprived of his property except by authority of law.
• Thus, the Right to property now no longer remains a fundamental right. It is not a part of the basic structure of the Constitution. The right to property as a legal right (as distinct from the Fundamental Rights) has the following implications:
1. It can be regulated i.e., curtailed, abridged or modified without constitutional amendment by an ordinary law of the Parliament.
2. It protects the private property against executive action but not against legislative action.
3. In case of violation, the aggrieved person cannot directly move the Supreme Court under
Article 32 (right to constitutional remedies including writs) for its enforcement. He can move the High Court under Article 226. Hence only statement 3 is not correct.
4. No guaranteed right to compensation in case of acquisition or requisition of private property by the state.

Recently, doctors transplanted a pig heart into a patient in a last-ditch effort to save his life, which has marked the step towards the decades-long quest of using animal organs for life-saving transplants.
Xenotransplantation is a term associated with the transplantation, implantation, or infusion of cells, tissues, or organs among different species. It is defined by the US Food and Drug Administration (FDA) as "any procedure that involves the transplantation, implantation, or infusion into a human recipient of either (a) live cells, tissues, or organs from a nonhuman animal source, or (b) human body fluids, cells, tissues, or organs that have had ex vivo contact with live nonhuman animal cells, tissues, or organs. The demand for human cells, tissues, and organs for clinical transplantation continues to exceed the supply.
The limited availability of human allografts, coupled with recent scientific and biotechnical advances, has prompted the renewed development of investigational therapeutic approaches that use xenotransplantation products in human recipients.
• Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.

Option 1 is one of the fundamental duties mentioned in Part IV-A of the Indian constitution.
Option 2 is a part of Directive Principles of State Policy.
The Swaran Singh Committee recommended that the duty to pay taxes should be included in the fundamental duties, but it was not accepted. Hence, option 3 is not a fundamental duty.
Casting a vote is also not included in the fundamental duties, so option 4 is also not correct.
Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.
 

Statement 1 is correct: Article 17 states that "Untouchability" is abolished and its practice in any form is forbidden.
Statement 2 is not correct: Untouchability has not been defined by the constitution but various court judgments have expanded its meaning.
Statement 3 is not correct: It is available against both the state and private individuals. Protection of Civil Rights Act,1955 contains many provisions for this.
Statement 4 is correct: Article 17 only states that the enforcement of any disability arising out of "Untouchability" shall be an offense punishable in accordance with the law. Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955 contains the detailed provisions for this.

The Comptroller & Auditor General of India is provided with the security of tenure. He can be removed by the President only in accordance with the procedure mentioned in the Constitution. Thus, he does not hold his office till the pleasure of the president, though he is appointed by him. Also, he is not eligible for further office, either under the Government of India or of any state, after he ceases to hold his office. Hence, option (b) is correct.
• The Attorney General is not a full-time counsel for the Government. He does not fall in the category of government servants. Further, he is not debarred from private legal practice.
• The chairman of UPSC (on ceasing to hold office) is not eligible for further employment in the Government of India or a state. A member of UPSC (on ceasing to hold office) is eligible for appointment as the chairman of UPSC or a State Public Service Commission (SPSC), but not for any other employment in the Government of India or a state.

Statement 1 is correct: State Election Commissions is entrusted to conduct elections to Panchayats through 73rd and urban local bodies through 74th Constitutional amendment acts.
Statement 2 is correct: The functions of delimitation, reservation and rotation of Panchayats seats is vested in State Election Commission. As per the recommendations of National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution (NCRWC), the functions of delimitation, reservation and rotation of seats should be vested in a Delimitation Commission and not in the State Election Commission.
Statement 3 is not correct: At present, there is no clear-cut provision regarding the submission of reports by State Election Commission. NCRWC also recommended that the State Election Commission should submit its annual or special reports to the Election Commission of India and to the Governor.

Three new DPSPs (Directive Principles of State Policy) were added to the existing list of DPSPs and one (Article 39) was amended:
To secure opportunities for the healthy development of children (Article 39)
To promote equal justice and to provide free legal aid to the poor (Article 39 A)
To take steps to secure the participation of workers in the management of industries (Article 43 A)
To protect and improve the environment and to safeguard forests and wildlife (Article 48 A)

Originally, the Constitution of India did not make any provision with respect to the Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities. Later, the States Reorganisation Commission (1953-55) made a recommendation in this regard. Accordingly, the Seventh Constitutional Amendment Act of 1956 inserted a new Article 350-B in Part XVII of the Constitution. Hence, statement 1 is correct. This article contains the following provisions:
1. There should be a Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities. He is to be appointed by the President ofIndia.
2. It would be the duty of the Special Officer to investigate all matters only relating to the
safeguards provided for linguistic minorities under the Constitution.
• He would report to the President upon those matters at such intervals as the President may direct. The President should place all such reports before each House of Parliament and send to the governments of the states concerned. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

Statement 1 is not correct: Though the Indian Constitution is federal and envisages a dual polity (centre and states), it provides for only a single citizenship, that is, Indian citizenship (like in Canada). The citizens in India owe allegiance only to the Union. There is no separate state citizenship. The other federal states, like the USA and Switzerland, on the other hand, adopted the system of double citizenship.
• Statement 2 is not correct: In India, both a citizen by birth and a naturalized citizen are eligible for the office of president, while in the USA, only a citizen by birth and not a naturalized citizen is eligible for the office of president.

Statement 1 is not correct as it is a part of the Socialist principles but not Gandhian principles.
Statement 2 is not correct as it is also a part of Socialist principles.
Statement 3 is correct as Gandhiji had always advocated the self-governance model through village Panchayats.

The Directive Principles, although confer no legal rights and creates no legal remedies, are significant and useful in the following ways:
1. They are like an 'Instrument of Instructions' or general recommendations addressed to all authorities in the Indian Union. They remind them of the basic principles of the new social and economic order, which the Constitution aims at the building.
2. They have served as useful beacon-lights to the courts. They have helped the courts in exercising their power of judicial review, that is, the power to determine the constitutional validity of a law.
3. They form the dominating background to all State action, legislative or executive, and also a guide to the courts in some respects.
4. They amplify the Preamble, which solemnly resolves to secure to all citizens of India justice, liberty, equality, and fraternity.
5. They facilitate stability and continuity in domestic and foreign policies in political, economic, and social spheres in spite of the changes of the party in power.
6. They are supplementary to the fundamental rights of the citizens. They are intended to fill in the vacuum in Part III by providing for social and economic rights.
7. Their implementation creates a favorable atmosphere for the full and proper enjoyment of the fundamental rights of the citizens. Political democracy, without economic democracy, has no meaning.
8. They enable the opposition to exercise influence and control over the operations of the government. The Opposition can blame the ruling party on the ground that its activities are opposed to the Directives.
9. They serve as a crucial test for the performance of the government. The people can examine the policies and programs of the government in light of these constitutional declarations.

Statement 1 is correct. Indian constitution is a sacred document but not a static one. It allows changes if the demand is made by society. After independence, several amendments/provisions and laws were made as the needs of the society.
Statement 2 is correct. Ever since the constitution came into being, the political class and the judiciary subjected it to multiple interpretations. Judicial pronouncements/judgments have led to the establishment of several doctrines which was not mentioned in the original constitution. Eg - Basic Structure Doctrine.
 

‘Territory of India’ is a wider expression than ’Union of India’ because the latter includes only states, while the former includes not only the states but also union territories and territories that may be acquired by the Government of India at any future time.

Statement 1 is not correct: the constitution derives its authority from the people of India not from the constituent assembly, this is mentioned in the preamble part of the constitution.
• Statement 2 is not correct - the American constitution was the first to begin with a Preamble. Many countries, including India, followed the practice.
• Statement 3 is correct: In the Keshavananda Bharti case, SC has held that preamble is a part of the Constitution. And if there is any lack of clarity in the constitution, the judiciary turns to the Preamble in its interpretation of the relevant provisions.

The Protection of Human Rights Act of 1993 provides for the creation of the National Human Rights Commission and State Human Rights Commission at the state level.
• A State Human Rights Commission can inquire into violation of human rights only in respect of subjects mentioned in the State List and the Concurrent List of the Constitution.
• However, if any such case is already being inquired into by the National Human Rights Commission or any other Statutory Commission, then the State Human Rights Commission does not inquire into that case.
• The chairperson and members of SHRC are appointed by the Governor. Whereas, in the case of NHRC, they are appointed by the President of India. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• Although the chairperson and members of an SHRC are appointed by the governor, they can be removed only by the President. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Statement 1 is correct: by this act, the constituent assembly made a fully sovereign body. This act also empowered the assembly to abrogate or alter any law made by the British in relation to India
Statement 2 is not correct: The act abolished the office of the viceroy and provided for each dominion, a Governor-General.
Statement 3 is not correct: This act ended British Rule in India and declared India as an independent and sovereign state from August 15, 1947. It proclaimed the lapse of British paramountcy over Indian Princely states and granted freedom to princely states to either to join two independent states (Pakistan or India) or remain independent.

What is a scheduled bank?
Scheduled banks in India refer to those banks that have been included in the Second Schedule of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934.
Every scheduled bank enjoys two types of principal facilities: it becomes eligible for debts/loans at the bank rate from the RBI, and it automatically acquires the membership of the clearinghouse.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
What are payments banks?
Payment banks were established to promote financial inclusion by offering ‘modest savings accounts and payments/remittance services to migratory labor workforce, low-income households, small enterprises, other unorganized sector entities, and other users.’
These banks can accept a restricted deposit, which is now capped at Rs 200,000 per person but could be raised in the future. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
These banks cannot provide loans or credit cards. Banks of this type can handle both current and savings accounts.
Payments banks can provide ATMs and debit cards, as well as online and mobile banking. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Statement 1 is correct. IN-SPACe, or Indian Space Promotion and Authorisation Centre, is touted as the body that will ensure a level playing field for Indian industry in a fast-growing global space sector. It will act as a facilitator and regulator of space activities in India. Statement 2 is incorrect. IN-SPACe, the new entity of the Department of Space, will have its own chairperson and board and regulate and promote the building of routine satellites, rockets, and commercial launch services through Indian industry and startups. It will function autonomously and parallel to ISRO. Statement 3 is correct. IN-SPACe will have a chairman, technical experts for space activities, a safety expert, experts from academia and industries, legal and strategic experts from other departments, and members from the PMO and MEA of the Government of India.

Statement 1 is correct—Rann of Kutch is the largest salt desert in the world. In the Rann of Kutch, the Southwest Monsoon brings salt particles and deposits them there as a crust. The Kutch Desert covers a vast area of 45,612 sq. km and is bounded to the north and northwest by Sindh (Pakistan), to the west and southwest by the Arabian Sea, and to the northeast by Rajasthan. 
Statement 2 is correct—Sir Creek is the disputed region between India and Pakistan. It is located in the Rann of Kutch. Sir Creek opens up in the Arabian Sea and roughly divides the Kutch region of Gujarat from the Sindh Province of Pakistan. 
Statement 3 is incorrect—Luni is an important river that flows into the Rann of Kutch. Luni rises from the Aravali Ranges and ends in the marshy lands of the Rann of Kutch. The Mahi River rises in Madhya Pradesh and flows through Rajasthan and Gujarat and into the Gulf of Khambhat.

Option a is incorrect. Bio-synthesizer is a new instrumentation concept for robots for complex laboratory automation on a low volume scale. Option b is incorrect. A pseudo-capsule is a structure similar to a capsule that surrounds some carcinomas.
Option c is correct. Bio-capsules is a technology developed by the Indian Institute of Spices Research (IISR), where a combination of selected beneficial microorganisms such as Trichoderma, Pseudomonas, and Bacillus is compacted into a package to give the effects of fertilizer. It is easy to store, use, and transport.
Option d is incorrect. Bio-Scaffolder is a kind of customizable 3D bioprinter.

Statement 1 is incorrect. The World Bank Board of Executive Directors launched Climate Adaptation and Resilience for South Asia (CARE) Project to help South Asia build resilience to climate threats and disasters by sharing regional data and knowledge, developing regional standards and guidelines for infrastructure, and promoting climate-resilient policies and investments. 
Statement 2 is correct. The Climate Adaptation and Resilience for South Asia (CARE) Project will help develop a public platform to inform climate planning and investments, and fund innovative and disruptive technology to support resilience in South Asia. It will also assess climate impacts in districts across Bangladesh, Nepal, and Pakistan to support agriculture, livestock, water, and transport.

Option a is incorrect. Natyashastra is detailed treatise and handbook on dramatic art that deals with all aspects of classical Sanskrit theatre. Its many chapters contain detailed treatments of all the diverse arts that are embodied in the classical Indian concept of the drama, including dance, music, poetics, and general aesthetics. 
Option b is incorrect. It is believed to have been written by the mythic Brahman sage and priest Bharata (200 BC-200 AD).
Option c is correct. Its primary importance lies in its justification of Indian drama as a vehicle of religious enlightenment.
Option d is incorrect. Dhrupad is one of the oldest and grandest forms of Hindustani classical music and finds its mention even in Natyashastra of Bharat muni.

Statement 1 is incorrect. Aichi Targets were adopted by the convention on biological diversity at Nagoya conference in 2010. 
Statement 2 is correct. India has the highest number of Internationally Recognized Certificates of Compliance (IRCC) (46) to provide foreign researchers, access to India’s Biodiversity. These researchers need apply under provisions of the Biological Diversity Act (2002). Behind India, South Africa comes next, with 2 IRCCs, Guatemala and Mexico with one IRCC each. 
Statement 3 is incorrect. India submitted its Sixth National Report (NR6) to the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD). The NR6 provides an update of progress in achievement of 12 National Biodiversity Targets (NBT) developed under the convention process in line with the 20 global Aichi biodiversity targets.

FIPIC was established in 2014. Other than India, the members of FIPIC include 14 Pacific Islands nations. These are Cook Islands, Fiji, Kiribati, Marshall Islands, Micronesia, Nauru, Niue, Samoa, Solomon Islands, Palau, Papua New Guinea, Tonga, Tuvalu and Vanuatu
Option a is incorrect. New Zealand is not part of FIPIC. 
Option b is correct. All three are member of FPIC
Option c is incorrect. Comoros is situated in Indian Ocean and hence, it's not part of FIPIC
Option d is incorrect. Sao Tome is an island-country in Atlantic Ocean.

Option a is correct – Entire group consists of tiny islands of coral origin (coral depositions on atolls) and are surrounded by fringing reefs. Option b is incorrect. Nine-degree channel (and not eleven degree) separates Minicoy from the main Lakshadweep archipelago. 
Option c is correct – The forest area is the area notified and recorded as the forest land irrespective of the existence of trees, while the actual forest cover is the area occupied by forests with canopy. The former is based on the records of the State Revenue Department, while the latter is based on aerial photographs and satellite imageries. The forest cover of Lakshadweep Islands is 90.33% while the forest area is 0% there. 
Option d is correct – Lakshadweep islands is located north of Maldives and Chagos group of Islands.

Data Free Flow with Trust (DFFT) was originally proposed by former Japanese prime minister Shinzo Abe at the G20 summit. A major international initiative on data flows, the Osaka Track, was launched by heads of governments under Japan’s G20 leadership in 2019. In September 2020, the Government of India made it clear that India will not accept the concept of Data Free Flow with Trust (DFFT).

Option d is correct. Option a is incorrect. Savanna or Sudan-type climate is a transitional type of climate found between the equatorial forests and the trade wind hot deserts. It is confined within the tropics. Here, the vegetation grows in the areas of moderate to low amounts of rainfall. The grass can grow very tall, about 3 to 4 meters in height. The Savannah grasslands of Africa are of this type. Elephants, zebras, giraffes, deer, and leopards are common in tropical grasslands. In South America, there are two distinct regions of savanna north and south of the equator, namely the Llanos and the Campos. In Australia, savanna is located south of the monsoon strip running from west to east north of the tropic of Capricorn. 
Option b is incorrect. Monsoon climate is characterized by distinct wet and dry seasons associated with seasonal reversal of winds. Floods in the wet season and droughts in the dry season are common. It occurs within 5° to 30° north and south of the equator. Temperatures range from 30°C to 45° C in summer. In winters, the temperature range is 15-30°C. It is dominated by deciduous forest. Grasses (thorny scrubland or savanna) are very rare and found in areas having low rainfall in summer.
Option c is incorrect. Cool temperate western margin climate is also known as British-type climate. The cool temperate western margins are under the influence of the westerlies all year round. They are the regions of frontal cyclonic activity (temperate cyclones). There is so much oceanic influence on both the temperature and precipitation. This type of climate is most pronounced in and around Britain. In North America, it is mainly confined to the coastlands of British Columbia. In the southern hemisphere, the climate is experienced in Southern Chile, Tasmania, and most parts of New Zealand. The natural vegetation of this climatic type is deciduous forest (trees shed their leaves in the cold season). 
Option d is correct. The temperate continental climate (steppe type) is found in the mid-latitudinal zones and in the interiors of continents. The climate is characterized by warm summers and very cold winters. The average rainfall is mild and varies according to location from 25 cm to 75 cm. The vast treeless plains are the prominent features of the areas under this type of climate. Here, the grasses are short and nutritious. The areas under this type of climate are famously known as the ‘granaries of the world.’ 

Option b is correct. Statement 1 is incorrect: In 2020-21, the Indian economy witnesses the first contraction in real GDP since 1985-86. This is the fourth contraction in India's GDP since 1960-61. The contractions in 1965-66 and 1971-72 coincided with wars and droughts, while the year 1979-80 was associated with a severe drought and political instability. In the first three contractions, there was a steep fall in agricultural output. The year 2020-21, on the contrary, saw the agricultural sector emerging as the silver lining of the economy.
Statement 2 is correct: While India has experienced variation in GDP growth rates, the size of the economy has steadily increased between 2015-16 and 2019-20.

Statement 1 is incorrect. An election petition can be filed either by a candidate or a voter in the concerned constituency of the state. Other than these persons, no one can approach a high court with an election petition. An election petition has to be filed within 45 days from the declaration of the results of the state assembly elections. 
Statement 2 is correct. According to section 80A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, an election petition can be filed directly in the High Court of the state to which the state assembly elections pertain. An appeal against the High Court’s decision can be filed in the Supreme Court. 
Statement 3 is correct. An election can be declared to be void on the ground that any corrupt practice has been committed by an elected candidate or his election agent or by any other person with the consent of a returned candidate or his election agent. It can also be declared void on the ground that on the date of his election as an elected candidate, he was not qualified or was disqualified to be chosen to fill the seat or that any nomination had been improperly rejected in the process.

Statement 1 is incorrect. The Arbitration and Conciliation (Amendment) Act, 2021, removes the 8th Schedule of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, which contained the necessary qualifications for accreditation of arbitrators. Now, the qualifications based on which arbitrators will be accredited will be prescribed by regulations, which will be framed by a proposed arbitration council.
Statement 2 is correct. As per the Amendment Act, 2021, if the award is being given on the basis of an agreement based on fraud or corruption, then the court will not impose a condition to stay the award and grant an unconditional stay during the pendency of the appeal if it has been challenged under Section 34 of the arbitration law.

Statement a is incorrect. The greater one-horned rhino is basically solitary except when adult males or rhinos nearing adulthood gather at wallows or to graze. Rhinos don't often hang out with each other. They are not interactive animals. 
Statement b is correct. Breeding occurs throughout the year, with a gestation period of 15-16 months. Statement c is incorrect. Females become sexually mature at 5-7 years old, while males mature at about 10.
So sexual maturity is reached early in females as compared to males. Statement d is incorrect. The highest density of Indian rhinos in the world is found in Pobitora wildlife sanctuary.

Statement 1 is incorrect. An application for review lies to the same court, while an appeal lies to a higher court. Statement 2 is incorrect. The constitution of India gives the power to the supreme court to review its own judgement. Statement 3 is correct. As per 1996 rules framed by the Supreme Court, a review petition must be filed within 30 days of the date of judgment or order. While a judgment is the final decision in a case, an order is an interim ruling that is subject to its final verdict. In certain circumstances, the court can condone a delay in filing the review petition if the petitioner can establish strong reasons that justify the delay. 
Statement 4 is incorrect. Review Petition is a discretionary right of court. Review petitions are heard by the same combination of judges who delivered the original order or judgment that is sought to be reviewed.

Statement 1 is correct: The Consumer Protection Act, 2019, which came into force on July 20, 2020, has brought in a new regulatory framework for e-commerce in the country, requiring online platforms to display the country of origin of items sold. 
Statement 2 is incorrect: Country of origin refers to the country where the item is produced, irrespective of the point of shipping. For example, if a Chinese-produced mobile handset is shipped via Vietnam to India, the country of origin will still remain China, not Vietnam. 
Statement 3 is incorrect: The display, according to the draft rules for e-commerce companies under the Consumer Protection Act (CPA), will also be applicable for platforms and marketplaces that are registered outside India. 
Statement 4 is correct: GeM has enabled a provision for indication of the percentage of local content in products. With this new feature, now, the country of origin as well as the local content percentage are visible in the marketplace for all items. The ‘Make in India’ filter has also been enabled on the portal.

Option a is correct: NBFCs whose asset size is of ?500 crore or more as per the last audited balance sheet are considered as systemically important NBFCs because activities of such NBFCs will have a bearing on the financial stability of the overall economy.
Option b is incorrect: the number of branches is not a factor in the classification of systemically important NBFCs. 
Option c is incorrect: Gross NPA is not a factor in the classification of systemically important NBFCs.
Option d is incorrect: NBFCs that are registered with RBI are categorized 
a) in terms of the type of liabilities into Deposit and Non-Deposit accepting NBFCs, 
b) non-deposit-taking NBFCs by their size into systemically important and other.

Statement 1 is not correct: BRICS is an informal group of states comprising the Federative Republic of Brazil, the Russian Federation, the Republic of India, the People's Republic of China, and the Republic of South Africa. Formal intergovernmental organizations are characterized by inter-state arrangements legalized through a charter or international treaty and coordinated by a permanent secretariat, staff, or headquarters. On the other hand, informal intergovernmental organizations are subject to no formal treaty and/or have no permanent secretariat. G20 is an example of an informal group.
Statement 2 is not correct: BRICS established the New Development Bank and the Contingent Reserve Arrangement (CRA) at the Fortaleza Summit (2014) in Brazil. The CRA provides a financial stability mechanism for countries affected by crises in their balance of payments. 
Statement 3 is correct: The Government of India and the New Development Bank (NDB) signed a loan agreement for lending $1,000 million for ‘supporting India’s economic recovery from COVID-19’ by supporting expenditures on rural infrastructure related to natural resource management (NRM) and rural employment generation under the Government of India’s Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGS).

Statement 1 is incorrect. Section 144 CrPC empowers a district magistrate to issue orders to prevent and address urgent cases of apprehended danger or nuisance. An order passed under this can remain in force for more than one month. However, any order passed under Section 144 cannot remain in force for more than two months from the date of the order, unless the state government considers it necessary. Even then, the total period cannot extend to more than six months.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The Supreme Court has upheld the constitutionality of Section 144 of the CrPC. However, the court held that the restrictions under sec 144 of the CrPC cannot be used to suppress legitimate expression and are subject to judicial scrutiny. 
Statement 3 is incorrect. The Temporary Suspension of Telecom Services (Public Emergency or Public Service) Rules under the Telegraph Act, 1985 governs the suspension of Internet. According to these Rules only the Home Secretary of the Union or a state can pass an order to shut down the internet. The order must include the reasons for decision.

The Bhoodan movement was launched in 1951, immediately after the peasant uprising in the Telengana region of Andhra Pradesh, and after some years, another movement known as Gramdan came into being in 1957. The objective was to persuade landowners and leaseholders in each concerned village to renounce their land rights, after which all the lands would become the property of a village association for the egalitarian redistribution and for the purpose of joint cultivation. Vinoba Bhave hoped to eliminate private ownership of land through Bhoodan and Gramdan and maintained that the movement would go a long way to ensure the just redistribution of land, the consolidation of holdings, and their joint cultivation.

A special majority (that is, a majority of the total membership of each House and a majority of two-thirds of the members of each House present and voting) of the parliament is needed for amending the Directive Principles of State Policy. Following are some of the important provisions in the Constitution that can be amended by a simple majority (that is, a majority of the members of each House present and voting) of the two Houses of Parliament. 
These amendments are outside the scope of Article 368. 
1) Admission or establishment of new states. 
2) Formation of new states and alteration of areas, boundaries or names of existing states. 
3) Abolition or creation of legislative councils in states. 
4) Privileges of the Parliament, its members and its committees. 
5) Number of puisne judges in the Supreme Court.
6) Conferment of more jurisdiction on the Supreme Court. 
7) Use of official language. 
8) Citizenship – acquisition and termination. 
9) Elections to Parliament and state legislatures. 
10) Delimitation of constituencies.
11) Union territories.
12) Fifth Schedule – administration of scheduled areas and scheduled tribes. 
13) Sixth Schedule – administration of tribal areas.

Statement 1 is correct. The WHO identified the best practices to name new human diseases in consultation and collaboration with the World Organisation for Animal Health (OIE) and the Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations (FAO).
Statement 2 is correct. Under the new guidelines 2015, WHO has listed out the terms that should be avoided while naming a new disease which includes, geographic locations, people’s names, species of animal or food, references to culture, population, industry or occupation, and other terms that incite undue fear. The name can also include other factual elements such as the environment (ocean, river), causal pathogen (coronavirus) and the year the new disease is first detected with or without mentioning the month.

Statement 1 is incorrect. In India, to resolve parental disputes, you need a court order, and it will be done under the supervision of authorities from the police and the court.
Statement 2 is correct. DNA profiles can reveal extremely sensitive information about an individual & hence could be misused for caste/community-based profiling. There are criticisms that the DNA profiling is a violation of human rights as it could also compromise the privacy of the individuals.

Option d is correct. Option a is incorrect: Sovereign-Backed financing is considered a loan to, or guaranteed by, a member. Non sovereign-Backed financing includes any financing to or for the benefit of a private enterprise or a sub sovereign entity (such as a political or administrative subdivision of a member or a public sector entity) that is not backed by a guarantee or counter-guarantee and indemnity provided by the member to the Bank.
Option b is incorrect: Any project that might receive funding from AIIB, regardless of whether it is a stand alone project or a co-financed project, must meet AIIB’s standards and must be financially viable, environmentally friendly and welcomed by local communities. 
Option c is incorrect: Except South Africa all other BRICS nations are members of AIIB.
Option d is correct: India is the second-largest shareholder of AIIB (with 7.62% voting shares) after China (26.06%).

Statement 1 is incorrect. U-235 cannot be used directly to produce electricity they have to undergo enrichment process before being used to generate electricity. 
Statement 2 is incorrect. Nuclear fusion-based power plant is presently not in operation for meeting the energy needs. However, some nuclear fusion-based power plants are under construction around the world. More common ones are the nuclear fission plants. 
Statement 3 is correct. Water, solid graphite and heavy water are used as a moderator in nuclear reactors. 
Statement 4 is correct. Nuclear technology can be used in medical diagnosis and treatment. It can also be used in different industries for different purposes such as in the irradiation of food, sterilization of disposable products etc.

Option a is incorrect. These paintings date back to the 17th century, when Tanjore was under the Nayaka dynasty. The Nayakas were great patrons of art and literature. In 1676, Maratha rule was established in the region, and Maratha rulers encouraged the art and artists. It was during this time, that Tanjore painting truly flourished and developed into the form and style in which we recognise it today. The Maratha rulers immensely patronised them during the 18th century. The Chola period of 11th century do have beautiful examples of medieval paintings from Tanjore like the dancing figures from Rajarajeswara temples, but they are wall paintings and not miniature paintings. 
Option b is incorrect. These paintings are unique as they are mostly created on glass and wooden planks (Palagai padam) instead of cloth and vellum as preferred in North India.
Option c is correct. They are unique because of the use of brilliant colour patterns and the liberal use of gold leaf. They used many types of gemstones and cut glasses for embellishments to create larger than life images. 
Option d is incorrect. Most of the paintings depict smiling Krishna in various poses and various major events in his life. Tanjore paintings portray both Hindu gods and goddesses, despite the influence of Mughal miniature paintings. Thus, goddesses also got enough space, like the gods in the paintings had. The central theme of these paintings is Gods and Goddesses and not Kings and his life.

Option a is incorrect: SWAYAM was launched on July 9, 2017 by the Ministry of Human Resource Development to provide one integrated platform and portal for online courses. 
Option b is incorrect: Start up Village Entrepreneurship Program aims to support entrepreneurs in rural areas to set up local enterprises. Option c is correct: The SWAYAM PRABHA is a group of 32 DTH channels devoted to telecasting of high quality educational programmes on 24X7 basis using the GSAT-15 satellite. Every day, there is new content for at least 4 hours which is repeated 5 more times in a day, allowing the students to choose the time of their convenience. 
Option d is incorrect: The 'Scheme for Capacity Building in Textile Sector (SCBTS)' known by the name Samarth, has the objective to skill the youth for gainful and sustainable employment in the textile sector.

Statement 1 is correct: As per the Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) carried out by the National Sample Survey Organisation of the Ministry of Statistics & Programme Implementation, in the year 2017-18, the total employment in both organized and unorganised sector in the country was around 47 crores. Out of this, around 9 crores are engaged in the organized sector and the balance of 38 crores are in the unorganized sector (that is around 80%). 
Statement 2 is correct: For old age protection to unorganised sector workers including traders, shopkeepers and self- employed persons, the Government has launched a flagship scheme namely Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-Dhan Yojana (PM-SYM). Under the schemes, beneficiaries are entitled to receive minimum monthly assured pension of Rs.3000/- after attaining the age of 60 years. The workers in the age group of 18 40 years whose monthly income is below Rs.15000/- can join the PM-SYM scheme.
Statement 3 is correct: The Code on Social Security, 2020 makes provisions for registration of all three categories of workers - unorganised workers, gig workers and platform workers
The Code on Social Security, 2020 states that the central government will set up such a fund for social security funds for unorganised workers, gig workers and platform workers. Further, state governments will also set up and administer separate social security funds for unorganised workers.

Pair 1 is correctly matched. Chak-Hao is a scented glutinous rice which has been in cultivation in Manipur over centuries, is characterised by its special aroma. Chak-Hao has also been used by traditional medical practitioners as part of traditional medicine. 
Pair 2 is correctly matched. Sohrai Khovar painting is a traditional and ritualistic mural art being practised by local tribal women in the area of Hazaribagh district of Jharkhand. It is done during local harvest and marriage seasons using local, naturally available soils of different colours. 
Pair 3 is correctly matched. Telia Rumal is a GI tag from Telangana which involves intricate handmade work with cotton loom displaying a variety of designs and motifs in three particular colours — red, black and white.
Pair 4 is correctly matched. Arumbavur wood carvings is a GI tag from Tamil Nadu, made by the artisans of Perambalur are mainly made out of wooden logs of lingam tree, mango, Indian ash tree, vaagai, maavilangai, aththi, vembu, vengai, teak wood, neem and rosewood tree. The craftsmen follow rules of iconography prescribed in the Shilpa Shastra.
Pair 5 is incorrectly matched. Toda Embroidery is an art work among the Toda pastoral people of Nilgiris, Tamil Nadu. It is also locally known as “Pukhoor” and is made exclusively by women of Toda communit.

EXPLANATION: Statement 1 is correct. Lithium-Sulfur battery is considered to be the successors of the Lithium-ion (Li-ion) batteries because of their lower cost of production, energy efficiency and improved safety. 
Statement 2 is correct. Lithium-Sulfur battery had an intrinsic problem with the sulfur electrode, which would break after repeated charge cycles making its superior capacity redundant.
Cost of production of Lithium-Sulfur battery is lower than Lithium-ion (Li-ion) batteries as sulfur is abundantly available. This could help in bringing down the cost of electric mobility in future.

Statement 1 is correct as Sanskrit texts and inscriptions used the term vanik to designate merchants. 
While trade was defined as an occupation for Vaishyas in the Shastras, a more complex situation is evident in plays such as the Mrichchhakatika written by Shudraka (c. fourth century CE). Here, the hero Charudatta was described as both a Brahmana and a sarthavaha or merchant. 
Statement 2 is correct as Matanga Jataka, a Pali text, portrays a story where the Bodhisatta (the Buddha in a previous birth) is identified as a chandala, named Matanga.

The rock-cut cave carved at Barabar hills near Gaya in Bihar is known as the Lomus Rishi cave.
The facade of the cave is decorated with the semicircular chaitya arch as the entrance.
The elephant frieze carved in high relief on the chaitya arch shows considerable movement.
King Ashoka donated the Lomas Rishi Cave for the Ajivika sect, a contemporary religious order similar to Buddhism and Jainism.

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct as According to tradition and epigraphic evidence two brothers, Harihara and Bukka, founded the Vijayanagara Empire in 1336. This empire included within its fluctuating frontiers peoples who spoke different languages and followed different religious traditions. The Vijayanagara kings claimed to rule on behalf of the god Virupaksha. 
Statement 2 is correct as Vijayanagara or “city of victory” was the name of both a city and an empire. The empire was founded in the fourteenth century. In its heyday it stretched from the river Krishna in the north to the extreme south of the peninsula. 
Statement 3 is correct as No mortar or cementing agent was used in the construction of fortification walls. The stone blocks were wedge shaped, which held them in place and the inner portion of the walls was of earth packed with rubble.

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct as in Amravati, situated in the eastern Deccan, a different type of art form evolved and flourished for nearly six centuries commencing from 200-100 BC. The Amravati School of Art was Patronized by the Satavahanas and later by the Ikshvakus and also by other groups (feudatories, officials, and merchants). 
Statement 2 is incorrect as Amravati School of Art was indigenous in character. It included description of Jataka stories. Through the successive stages, one may observe an advance in technique and refinement. The first period dating from 200-100 BC, is evidenced at Jagayyapeta, where a few slabs on decorative pieces at the base of the stupa have been found. These slabs depict pilasters at intervals with animals above bell-shaped capitals and devotees adoring the Buddha, who is symbolically represented.

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct as the developments that followed the coming of Islam were not confined to ruling elites; in fact they permeated far and wide, through the subcontinent, amongst different social strata – peasants, artisans, warriors, merchants, to name a few.
All those who adopted Islam accepted, in principle, the five “pillars” of the faith: that there is one God, Allah, and Prophet Muhammad is his messenger (shahada); offering prayers five times a day (namaz/salat); giving alms (zakat); fasting during the month of Ramzan (sawm); and performing the pilgrimage to Mecca (hajj).
Statement 2 is incorrect as the Muslim rulers were to be guided by the Ulema, who were expected to ensure that they ruled according to the shari‘a. Ulama were the scholars of islamic studies. As preservers of this tradition they performed various religious, political, judicial and teaching functions. 

Explanation: Harshavardhana (606 AD-647 AD) administration was feudal and decentralised. Harsha possessed huge army (100,000 horses and 60,000 elephants) because every feudatory contributed his quota of footmen and horses and thus made the imperial army vast in numbers. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
Hiuen Tsang who travelled in India between 628 A.D.and 645 A.D. during the reign of Harshavardhana, took note of untouchables as scavengers, executioners etc. According to him, they lived outside the villages and consumed garlic and onion. The Untouchables announced their entry into the town or village by shouting loudly, so that the people might keep away from them.
He described in the empire of Harsha law and order was not well-maintained. The offenders were given physical punishments and tortured as well to extract the truth from them while the traitors were given death sentence or turned out of the kingdom. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
He also informed that the revenues of Harsha were divided into 4 parts:
Expenditure for the king , Expenditure for the scholars , For the endowment of officials and public servants, For the religious purposes. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Explanation: The early Dravidian style of temples, which are wholly rock cut, was executed during the rule of the Pallava king Narsimha Varman I (640 AD648 AD). Narsimha Varman I selected the town of a granite cliff situated on the coast. It was here for the time free-standing temples called the Rathas, popularly known as the Five Pagodas, were carved and they exemplify entirely novel forms of expression. The large gateways are known as the Gopurams.

Explanation: He introduced the system of dagh (branding of horses) and prepared huliya (descriptive list of soldiers). In order to ensure maximum efficiency, a strict review of the army from time to time was carried out. Hence statement 1 is correct.
Each market was under the control of a high officer called Shahna-i-Mandi. The supply of grain was ensured by holding stocks in government storehouses. Regulations were issued to fix the price of all commodities. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
Apart from market reforms, Alauddin Khalji took important steps in the land revenue administration. He was the first Sultan of Delhi who ordered the measurement of land. Hence statement 3 is correct.

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct as Sufi mystics wandered from place to place to spread their message. They established hold in both cities as well as villages of India.
Statement 2 is correct as the saints belonging to Suhrawardi order of Sufism, accepted the service of state and some of them held important posts in ecclesiastical department. They helped the rulers by creating a climate of opinion in which people of different sects could live in peace and harmony.
Statement 3 is incorrect as the saints belonging to Chisti order of Sufism dispersed and extended their message to eastern and southern parts of India. Qadiri order founded by Abdul Qadir whose tomb is at Baghdad. Its influence is extensively seen among the Muslims of south India.

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct as Buddha became the 9th Incarnation of the Dashavatar Vishnu and thus became Part of Vaishnavism. This led to the decline of Buddhism. 
Statement 2 is incorrect as Central Asian tribes who ruled India in post Mauryan age embraced Buddhism as it gave them easier access to the Indian Society. 
Statement 3 is Incorrect as he Gupta Period was a time of great Development of Hindu Culture but even then nearly half the Population supported Buddhism. Although, the Gupta Kings were followers of Brahmanism but they were liberal to Buddhism and Jainism.

Explanation: Kabir and Guru Nanak believed in the oneness of God. Guru Nanak laid great emphasis on the purity of character and conduct as the first condition of approaching God and the need of a guru for guidance. Like Kabir, he strongly denounced idol worship, pilgrimages, and other formal observances of the various faiths. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
Like Kabir, Guru Nanak also believed in human equality and brotherhood and strongly denounced the caste system. He also considered the rulers of his time to be irreligious tyrants. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
However, unlike Kabir, he postulated an ideal state that would be presided over by a philosopher-king who would base his conduct on morality, justice, and equality. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

Explanation: Contemporary literary works like the Devichandraguptam and the Mudhrakshasam, written by Visakadatta, provide information regarding the rise of the Guptas.
The Chinese traveler Fahien, who visited India during the reign of Chandragupta II, has left a valuable account of the social, economic, and religious conditions of the Gupta empire.
The Chinese traveler Fahien, who visited India during the reign of Chandragupta II, has left a valuable account of the social, economic, and religious conditions of the Gupta empire.
Apart from these literary sources, there are inscriptions like the Meherauli Iron Pillar Inscription and the Allahabad Pillar Inscription.
The Allahabad Pillar inscription was issued by Samudragupta and was composed by Harisena. It is written in very simple and refined Sanskrit in Champukavya style. It lists achievements of Samudragupta. This inscription is a eulogy of Samudragupta and mentions the conquests of Samudragupta and the boundaries of the Gupta Empire.

Explanation: Pair 1 is incorrect as Ravanchhaya is the most theatrical of shadow puppetry and is a popular form of entertainment in the Odisha region. The puppets are made of deer skin and depict bold, dramatic postures. They do not have any joints attached to them, making it more complex art. There is use of non-human puppets, such as trees and animals as well. 
Pair 2 is correct as Kundhei are the string puppets of Odisha. They are made of light wood and are dressed in long skirts. The puppets have more joints, thus giving the puppeteer more flexibility. The strings are attached to a triangular prop. There is a marked influence of Odia dance on Kundhei puppet show. 
Pair 3 is incorrect as Gombeyatta is the traditional puppet show of Karnataka. They are styled and designed on the various characters of the yakshagana theatres. A unique feature of this puppetry is that more than one puppeteer is used to manipulate the puppets.

Explanation: Fahien‘s account on the Gupta administration provides useful information. He characterises the Gupta administration as mild and benevolent. There were no restrictions on people‘s movements and they enjoyed a large degree of personal freedom. There was no state interference in the individual’s life. Punishments were not severe.
Imposing a fine was a common punishment,there was no spy system.
The administration was so efficient that the roads were kept safe for travelers, and there was no fear of thieves. He mentioned that people were generally prosperous and the crimes were negligible.

Explanation: The first time the Mongols launched a serious campaign to establish their rule over Delhi was in 1299, when a Mongol force under Qutlugh Khwaja entered many streets in the city.  In 1303, the Mongols appeared again and the people of Delhi had to face many hardships. On both these occasions the Mongols retreated without achieving anything. The ruler of the Delhi Sultanate on both these occasions was Alauddin Khalji.
In the early years of Muhammad bin Tughlaq’s reign (1324-51), the Mongols under their leader Tarmashrin burst into Sindh, and a force reached up to Meerut, about 65 km from Delhi. In 1221, during the reign of Iltutmish, the Mongols, under Changez Khan, came up to the Indus in pursuit of the Khwarizmi prince Jalaluddin who had crossed the river into India. Despite remaining there for three months Changez Khan did not cross into India.

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct as Guild worked at banks and courts and made religious and charitable donations. Most of the donations were attributed to Buddhism and Jainism, which ultimately contributed to the development of the respective art. 
Statement 2 is correct as By organizing themselves into guilds, the artisans and traders could negotiate with the state authorities with greater force to make their voice heard and grievances redressed. This not only facilitated trade and commerce but also added to the importance of Vaishyas.
Statement 3 is correct, as it improved the condition of trade and commerce and increased the tax collection by state. The improved tax revenue increased the political stability, as on account of high tax collection, the state could manage a huge army.

Explanation: Early Sangam texts mention different categories of people engaged in agriculture were based on differential access to land, labour and some of the new technologies. In south India people who were divided into three groups– large landowners or vellalar, ploughmen or uzhavar and slaves or adimai. In the country side of Northern India people were divided into three groups – landless agricultural labourers, small peasants, as well as large landholders.

Explanation: A large quantity of pottery excavated from the sites, enable us to understand the gradual evolution of various design motifs as employed in different shapes, and styles. The Indus Valley pottery consists chiefly of very fine wheel-made wares, very few being hand-made. Plain pottery is more common than painted ware. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
It is evident from the discovery of a large number of spindles and spindle whorls in the houses of the Indus Valley that spinning of cotton and wool was very common. Hence, statement 2 is not correct. Many stone structural remains are also found at Dholavira which show how the Indus Valley people used stone in construction. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Explanation: According to Rig Veda,two popular assemblies called sabha and samiti formed an essential feature of the government. 
Sabha, less political in character, was a more select body of the Elders or Nobles. It was through these two assemblies that the will of the people on important matters of the rashtra was expressed. Hence statement 1 is not correct. 
Samiti mainly dealt with policy decisions and political business and included common people. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

Explanantion: Indian society was divided into seven classes comprising of philosophers, agriculturists, soldiers, artisans, shepherds and hunters, officials in government and spies. This division of society was based on the occupation pursued by the people. Thus, statement 1 is correct.
People generally were honest, the incidences of thefts and robbery were rare. The code of punishment was severe. Thus, statement 2 is incorrect.
Megasthenes says that slavery was absent but he talks about growing practise of polygamy, employment of women as bodyguards to king, spies, etc. Thus, statement 3 is incorrect.

Explanation: XPoSat (X-Ray Polarimeter Satellite) is India's first polarimetry mission. It is being built by ISRO and Raman Research Institute. According to ISRO, “XPoSat will study various dynamics of bright astronomical X-ray sources under extreme conditions” and will carry two payloads. It is only the second polarimetry mission in the world to study the dynamics of bright astronomical X-ray sources under extreme conditions.